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Once it is in a form of a preposition, then gender doesn't figure in.
Not exactly the same, but close enough. The difference is gender - masculine eis vs neuter en.
The gender is irrelevant because, as an adjective, it takes the form of the word it modifies.
There are 67 such occurrences of "ἓν" for "εἷς" in the New Testament.
Either way, it is using figures of speech.
. . . your take on why "one and the same" can be specified in those instances, but why "one and the same" can't be specified in the other instances . . .
I don't.
If you believe that this makes Jesus the exact same entity as God . . .
I don't engage in that sort of word play but try to understand the metaphorical values of the sayings.
Do you see the logical fallacy of this belief of yours?
I don't believe in that and don't know why you would think that I do.
It is much more logical and in apparent proper context to believe this is speaking about a unison of heart and mind, rather than simply a single self-same entity.
originally posted by: jmdewey60
I may not be the person you want to argue this with because it looks like (to me) that the "I and the Father are one" statement is describing a "oneness" by proclamation, with God doing miracles being the evidence for that thing being "proclaimed" (by Jesus himself) being true.
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: Akragon
Text He also said "No man goes to heaven except those that came from heaven" Which makes a good portion of us... IF not all of us that same god like person
Could you show us where that scripture is?
John_3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Up to the time that Jesus said this, what He was saying was that the kingdom of heaven had not been established as yet and that no one of flesh had as yet been in heaven except Himself. That is my understanding but not as you have understood whatever you have read.
My philosophy is that you need to understand what it is literally saying before you can make a proper interpretation of it.
It was my understanding that it as the nature of that "oneness", rather than the claiming mechanism, that was in question, which was why I got into the Greek in the first place.
The "hath" part means this is an accomplished event, someone going up to heaven.
John_3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Up to the time that Jesus said this, what He was saying was that the kingdom of heaven had not been established as yet and that no one of flesh had as yet been in heaven except Himself. That is my understanding but not as you have understood whatever you have read.
originally posted by: Akragon
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: Akragon
Text He also said "No man goes to heaven except those that came from heaven" Which makes a good portion of us... IF not all of us that same god like person
Could you show us where that scripture is?
John_3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Up to the time that Jesus said this, what He was saying was that the kingdom of heaven had not been established as yet and that no one of flesh had as yet been in heaven except Himself. That is my understanding but not as you have understood whatever you have read.
You got the passage...
Why do you believe the gospel of John is a time line of events that took place in order?
Johns gospel was pieced together from many different texts... it wasn't meant to be a time line written in chronological order...
and besides that... do you actually believe no one ever made it to heaven before he arrived?
Let me guess... you're also of the belief that only 144k people ever make it there...
Amirite?
The implication is that here talking to Nicodemus, was the form that he could listen to and hope to understand through metaphors what is going on in the spiritual realm that directs human events from above.
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: Rex282
Sorry but I don't buy that at all...
Everyone that has ever died returned to where they came from originally... which was and always will be with God
originally posted by: Akragon
To me this sounds like the idea Christians use... where everyone lies in a suspended status waiting for "judgement day"... makes no sense to me... then again I don't buy into revelation either
Really?
Except in his conversation with Nicodemus is specifically says... Don't worry if you don't understand what im telling you...
According to the story, he eventually did.
Jesus knew he wouldn't get it... because what he was telling him went against nicodemus's established beliefs...
Really?
According to the story, he eventually did.
originally posted by: jmdewey60
a reply to: AkragonFrom what Jesus knew about God, he seemed to himself, a man.
.. Scripture should have to prove Jesus was anything but what he said he was...
From what people knew about men, he seemed to them, like a god.
They were thinking about a material sort of throne on earth, just like some people think today, with a "second coming".
In one situation someone even asks if he could sit at the right hand of God with him, and Jesus says "You don't have a CLUE what you're asking"