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The belief that Fallen Angels mated with human women

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posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:19 PM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


I use the Westminster Leningrad Codex for my OT Hebraic translation/transliteration,

The Textus Receptus for the NT Greek translat/translit,

The strongs concordance for defintions,

and a KJV/AV and CLV side by side for comparison,

I think this is the most effective way to study the true Word of God.




posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:19 PM
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English: ----> ANGEL


Hebrew: ----> Bene ha'Elohim (Sons of God), Mal'ak

Greek: -----> Aggelos

MAL'AK: ("Mal'ak ha'YHVH" = angel of the LORD)

1) messenger, representative

a) messenger

b) angel

c) the theophanic angel


AGGELOS:

1) a messenger, envoy, one who is sent, an angel, a messenger from God



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:20 PM
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Originally posted by Iason321
reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


I use the Westminster Leningrad Codex for my OT Hebraic translation/transliteration,

The Textus Receptus for the NT Greek translat/translit,

The strongs concordance for defintions,

and a KJV/AV and CLV side by side for comparison,

I think this is the most effective way to study the true Word of God.


Great start brother, u2u me when you're ready for the brief history lesson. +1



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:31 PM
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I would hardly call the Nephilim "heroes of reknown". They destroyed entire armies of men and then fed on them like food and drank their blood. Why go through artificial insemination when it would be more pleasureable to just have sex with them? They took wives from the daughters of men.



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:54 PM
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Originally posted by jhill76
No, they are to turn away when this is done. (To prevent them from getting curious)
I bet the ones that watch over me don't turn away, because I'm so attractive.



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:55 PM
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reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 



No they didn't.



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 06:56 PM
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reply to post by Q2IN2Y
 


Prove it then



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:00 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
I only use TR. Because I only consider TR-based bibles the Word of God.
Non-english speaking peoples are in trouble, because they don't have bibles translated from the Textus Receptus, as far as I can remember. I know a missionary who lost sponsorship from a church because he didn't use a KJV bible. The problem was that he was in Mexico, and there were no Bibles translated from the TR.

Also, from what I understand the earliest bibles didn't contain Mark 16:9-20, they were added later. Is that not right, and if not can you provide a reliable source for me to look into it?

Finally, it appears god does allow changes to be made to the bible. If he allowed it back then, how do you know the very first copies didn't contain changes, and then changes from those copies, and so on?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:03 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
English: ----> ANGEL


Hebrew: ----> Bene ha'Elohim (Sons of God), Mal'ak

Greek: -----> Aggelos

MAL'AK: ("Mal'ak ha'YHVH" = angel of the LORD)

1) messenger, representative

a) messenger

b) angel

c) the theophanic angel


AGGELOS:

1) a messenger, envoy, one who is sent, an angel, a messenger from God
Since angels are messengers, were they created after man? Because if they were created before man, who were they messengers to? Next, the bible says god created Adam and Eve. Were all those angels created to be messengers for them up until the fall?
edit on 15-4-2012 by Hydroman because: (no reason given)



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:05 PM
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Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
I would hardly call the Nephilim "heroes of reknown".
Just going by what the bible said.


Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
They destroyed entire armies of men and then fed on them like food and drank their blood. Why go through artificial insemination when it would be more pleasureable to just have sex with them? They took wives from the daughters of men.
Again, explain how their dna was compatible to human dna to create offspring. And, were there only male Nephilim? No females? Why is that?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:20 PM
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Originally posted by Q2IN2Y
reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 



No they didn't.



YAY! Arbitrary! I can debunk that method with ease:


Yes they did.


See?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:22 PM
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Originally posted by Hydroman

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
English: ----> ANGEL


Hebrew: ----> Bene ha'Elohim (Sons of God), Mal'ak

Greek: -----> Aggelos

MAL'AK: ("Mal'ak ha'YHVH" = angel of the LORD)

1) messenger, representative

a) messenger

b) angel

c) the theophanic angel


AGGELOS:

1) a messenger, envoy, one who is sent, an angel, a messenger from God
Since angels are messengers, were they created after man? Because if they were created before man, who were they messengers to? Next, the bible says god created Adam and Eve. Were all those angels created to be messengers for them up until the fall?
edit on 15-4-2012 by Hydroman because: (no reason given)


Angels are not only messengers. You are using mans term to describe something not of man. There are many different types of angels. People in the bible only dealt with mainly angels who passed messages hence the definition.



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:25 PM
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reply to post by Hydroman
 



Also, from what I understand the earliest bibles didn't contain Mark 16:9-20, they were added later. Is that not right, and if not can you provide a reliable source for me to look into it?



It's rejected with Occam's razor.

The Alexandrian MSS are 4th century products from the Gnostics at Alexandria. The Textus Siniaticus, the Textus Vaticanus and the Textus Alexandrius. The last 12 verses of Mark are missing.

Irenaeus quotes from them in his commentary on Mark in 177 AD, Hyppoleteus quotes from them as well in the first part of the 3rd century AD.

Either:

A: Both these men were Clairvoyants.
B: The Gnostics expurgated them from the text at Alexandria.

The answer is pretty obvious don't you think?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:30 PM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


There you are. Check out that inbox of yours, mate...



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:32 PM
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reply to post by Hydroman
 



Since angels are messengers, were they created after man? Because if they were created before man, who were they messengers to? Next, the bible says god created Adam and Eve. Were all those angels created to be messengers for them up until the fall?


The sons of God sang for joy at creation. And God is omniscient remember, He knew all this would be. But we're getting off the point now, let's turn this back to Genesis 6.



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:49 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Irenaeus quotes from them in his commentary on Mark in 177 AD, Hyppoleteus quotes from them as well in the first part of the 3rd century AD.

Either:

A: Both these men were Clairvoyants.
B: The Gnostics expurgated them from the text at Alexandria.

The answer is pretty obvious don't you think?
I suppose it's not possible that Irenaues added the verses himself?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:53 PM
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Originally posted by Hydroman
Finally, it appears god does allow changes to be made to the bible. If he allowed it back then, how do you know the very first copies didn't contain changes, and then changes from those copies, and so on?
Could you address this?

We know god allows changes to be made, because it has happened. Now, before these things were written down, they were orally passed down. How do you know embellishments weren't added, stories weren't changed, etc.? Again, god allows these things as can be proven, if he is indeed real. So, how do you know these stories are accurate from the very beginning?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 07:54 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
The sons of God sang for joy at creation. And God is omniscient remember, He knew all this would be. But we're getting off the point now, let's turn this back to Genesis 6.
Are they messengers or not? Did their job description change at some point?



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 08:09 PM
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reply to post by Hydroman
 



I suppose it's not possible that Irenaues added the verses himself?


No, he didn't compile manuscripts. There are two families, the Alexandrian MSS (TS,TV,TA), and the Antiochian (TR).



posted on Apr, 15 2012 @ 08:11 PM
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Originally posted by Hydroman

Originally posted by Hydroman
Finally, it appears god does allow changes to be made to the bible. If he allowed it back then, how do you know the very first copies didn't contain changes, and then changes from those copies, and so on?
Could you address this?

We know god allows changes to be made, because it has happened. Now, before these things were written down, they were orally passed down. How do you know embellishments weren't added, stories weren't changed, etc.? Again, god allows these things as can be proven, if he is indeed real. So, how do you know these stories are accurate from the very beginning?


Listen to "Cosmic Codes" on youtube in it's entirety, from Introduction to the end, and ask me the same Q in a few days.

Just take my offer and then ask me the same thing.



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