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Originally posted by miriam0566
Originally posted by John Matrix
David cheated. That's adultery because he did not have his wife's consent to have sex with another women, and he also had that woman's husband killed.....that is why he was chastised. I would not call it condemned either, since God loved David and if David was condemned God would have sent him to hell.
BTW: I have lexicons, concordances, study bibles and all kinds of bibles and books from well known authors. As well, I have a ministerial degree.
i find it amazing that the ones with degrees tend to have the most warped opinions on the bible
Originally posted by passenger
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
First, with what we're learning about homosexual orientation, should we take verses that may be prohibiting homosexual acts written more than 2000 years ago and apply them to the modern phenomenon of homosexuality?
"Modern phenomenon of homosexuality"? (emphasis added) Huh? You mean that gay guys were doing something different than 2,000 years ago? Seems to me that they were, basically, doing the same thing that gay guys are doing today. Or was there a different form of homosexuality back then? Please inform me with the subtle intricacies of this....
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
Should we assume that whoever wrote Leviticus (I doubt it was Moses) knew more about human sexuality than we do today?
Certainly not. We all know more about sexuality and human nature because people 2,000 years ago were completely ignorant about what was going on around them. They had NO IDEA about mating a male and a female to achieve offspring. They certainly didn't know about normal human relations. HA! Those ignorant savages - they didn't even have the interweb!
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
[By the way, if one is arguing from a standpoint of plenary verbal inspiration, there's not much progress that can be made in a conversation such as this, since one side pretty much already has their mind made up.]
Again: Huh? I understand what you are getting at - by why didn't you just say so?!
(methinks I smell a budding flower of Graduate School in the garden, tempting the bees with its educated pollen)
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
With the phrase "modern phenomenon of homosexuality," I was pointing out the differences in understandings of homosexuality on a psychological level from the time Leviticus was written to now. Of course, the sex acts were the same.
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
Understanding why men (and women - which are strangely absent in the Leviticus prohibition) wanted to have sex with one another is the issue.
Originally posted by pdpayne0418
"Plenary verbal inspiration" = God gave the exact words to the authors of the Bible.
Almost every single English translation of 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 is crap. The word homosexual was not even used until the 19th century. How could a word that wasn't dreamed of until 1800 years after the original word in another language was written be a perfect translation? Arsenakatoi is the original word, and before the word "homosexual" was derived, was translated loosely as "temple prostitute." STOP reading the Bible as if it is modern literature
ἀρσενοκοῖται
arsenokoitai •
homosexuals
ἢ οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ἄδικοι θεοῦ βασιλείαν οὐ κληρονομήσουσιν; μὴ πλανᾶσθε· οὔτε πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε ἀρσενοκοῖται
Or don't you know that the unrighteous will not inherit the Kingdom of God? Don't be deceived. Neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor male prostitutes, nor homosexuals,
733. arsenokoites (ar-sen-ok-oy'-tace) homosexual
πόρνοις ἀρσενοκοίταις ἀνδραποδισταῖς ψεύσταις ἐπιόρκοις, καὶ εἴ τι ἕτερον τῇ ὑγιαινούσῃ διδασκαλίᾳ ἀντίκειται
for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave-traders, for liars, for perjurers, and for any other thing contrary to the sound doctrine;
a sodomite: - abuser of (ones's) self with mankind, defile (ones) self with mankind. This word means one who lies with a male as with a female, he is a sodomite, a homosexual (1 Cor 6:9; 1 Ti 1:10)
What is at issue is the meaning of the words μαλακοι and αρσενοκοιται The usual view is that they refer to men who engage in homosexual acts. μαλακοι are those taken to play the "feminine" role, αρσενοκοιται those taken to play the "masculine" role. That these refer to homosexuals of some sort is clear from the Latin translation, produced in the 5th century, which uses molles "soft ones" for μαλακοι and masculorum concubitores "those who sleep with men" for αρσενοκοιται. There are two disputes over the translation of these terms. One is valid but not really relevant here. The observation is that the ancient Greeks had no notion of homosexual "identity", so modern terms like "homosexual" and "gay", which describe identities, are not appropriate. This seems to be true, but it means only that the Greek terms must be taken as referring to men who engage in sexual acts with men, not to a male gay sexual orientation or identity. The passage still condemns homosexual activity.
Paul probably did want to single out men who engaged in sexual activity with other men–especially given the context. "Pornoi" (as seen from the English derivative) and 'moichoi' are unquestionably sexual terms. Paul probably did consider it a sin for men to have sex with each other.
With regard to the question of whether arsenokoitai refers only to those who engage in a specific type of homosexual act in the context of a particular type of relationship, such as that typical in classical Greece between an adult man and a boy, it seems to me that the fact that Paul chose an apparent neologism rather than any of the existing terms available to him is in and of itself evidence that he did not wish to limit himself to a particular act and/or relationship, but want to refer to homosexual activity in general.
as also in all of his letters, speaking in them of these things. In those, there are some things that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unsettled twist, as they also do to the other Scriptures, to their own destruction.
It is not divine, it is hateful, spiteful, and selfish - and it caters to those who also share these traits.
And behold, one came to Him and said, "Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may obtain eternal life?" And He said to him, "Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good; but if you wish to enter into life, keep the commandments." He said to Him, "Which ones?" And Jesus said, "You shall not commit murder; You shall not commit adultery; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; Honor your father and mother; and You shall love your neighbor as yourself." The young man said to Him, "All these things I have kept; what am I still lacking?" Jesus said to him, "If you wish to be complete, go and sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you shall have treasure in heaven; and come, follow Me." But when the young man heard this statement, he went away grieved; for he was one who owned much property.
Originally posted by makinho21
reply to post by Totakeke
So do u cut off your hands when you go and knock one off? No you don't..which means your a hypocrite. Jesus said you have to...or pluck out your eye. I don't see many blind Christians walking around
Christ does not intend for us to take this instruction literally. Jesus does not want sinners to become physically handicapped. Because sin begins in the mind, the eye, the hand, or the foot cannot sin of and by themselves. Even without these body parts, a person can still sin.
Our Savior often employs figures of speech in His preaching. Here, He is simply using parts of the body to elucidate an important principle—that a Christian should not tolerate sin in his life. Once a sin becomes apparent, we should take immediate steps to eliminate it from our lives. By using the striking example of amputation, Christ also illustrates that the process of overcoming sin may be as painful as losing an arm, a leg, or an eye. Ultimately, it is far better to give up a sinful pleasure than to lose out on salvation (Hebrews 11:23-26). The apostle Paul expands Jesus' instruction in Colossians 3:1-17.
I am also betting that if I took out a permanent marker and started making editional changes to the book that I wouldn't be struck dead.
Honestly, what is wrong with you people? There is something severely wrong with you when you cannot recognize there are twelve or so completely different sentences in modern ENGLISH about some scriptures being cited.
You cannot say "The word has been protected by GOD" while you are staring at two sentances that are NOT using the same words.
When it comes to the bible being the infallible word of God... if it's printed in English, it isn't any Candy Mountain.
Originally posted by Totakeke
If you're referring to different Bible translations, they're all pretty much the same. But some of them omit certain things or change them too much which is why I prefer the KJV or NKJV.
They still mean the same thing, don't they? Just because they don't use the same words doesn't mean they're different. But like I said, we have to be careful because some newer Bible translations omit things or radically change the meaning of things.
We just have to trust that it's been translated correctly, and Christians do. It comes down to faith, just like accepting Christ does. We have to have faith that the Bible is the infallible Word of God and I for one certainly do.
"PRETTY MUCH THE SAME" Is a far cry from "THE INFALLIBLE WORD OF GOD BREATHED INTO LIFE AND UNALTERED IN INTENT FOR 2000 YEARS".
I do not need to read the bible to know that its not natural. Its wrong. Forget what the bible says and listen to what your gut tells you.
You can argue all you like, that the words didnt exist at the time. It doesnt matter, the deed did. And it found its way into the bible for a reason. Its easy for someone who doesnt believe in half the bible to debunk the rest, when they dont understand what the bible is.
It is not just a book, it is a living word. Any translation you make will leave the essence untouched. People have tried for centuries to twist its words, but they are still there. Plain for all to see.
The following passage will give an example of some of the difficulties the translators face when attempting to convert the Hebrew text into an understandable English rendering.
Make a roof for the ark, and finish it to a cubit above; and set the door of the ark in its side; make it with lower, second, and third decks. (Genesis 6:16 - RSV)
The above translation seems very clear, concise and understandable. The reader would have no problem understanding the meaning of the text and assumes this translation adequately represents the original text. Behind this translation lies the Hebrew, which must be a translator's nightmare. Below is a literal rendering of the same verse according to the Hebrew.
“A light you do to an ark and to a cubit you complete it from to over it and a door of the ark in its side you put unders twenty and thirty you do.”
This is not an isolated case, but occurs continually throughout the Biblical texts. In order to assist the English reader, the translator has supplied words, phrases, and even whole sentences to enable the reader to understand the text. The reader is rarely aware of the difficulties in translating a certain passage and assumes the translator has accurately translated the text.
Our bible is what we have to go by, you don't understand the language it was originally written in, you probably only no English. I know 3 languages, and I understand how they work.
Originally posted by Nammu
reply to post by iulslion
“A light you do to an ark and to a cubit you complete it from to over it and a door of the ark in its side you put unders twenty and thirty you do.”
Originally posted by Nammu
reply to post by iulslion
It's as much of a sin to have sex out of marriage as it is to have sex with someone of the same sex. And also to wear clothes woven of wool and linen, if you follow the same ethos. I don't see Christians arguing against the other two very much. It's picking and chosing to fit an agenda of hate against another person. It's not up to us to judge. So let people do what they want!
Originally posted by helen670
reply to post by the siren
Those that DISMISS what the Scriptures have to say about SIN,do so because they do not have faith,hope and Love in the True God.
They want to believe in something of their OWN liking and not which is of God and His WORD!
2Ti 4:3-4 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.