It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by KJV1611
So you're saying you wash peoples feet?
Good answer here LS on the sabbath, and no, I do not wash feet either. Any such WORK has no bearing on ones salvation.
till all be fulfilled
Originally posted by undo
reply to post by D377MC
till all be fulfilled
the debate on this is what fulfillment he was referring to. assuming he meant all prophecies regarding him, is one way of looking at it. assuming he was referring to his crucifixion and resurrection, is another way of looking at it.
Originally posted by Lazarus Short
Originally posted by Akragon
So you're saying you wash peoples feet?
And of course you keep the sabbath exactly how God wanted you to in the OT....right?
I have washed feet - some churches/denominations keep foot washing as an ordinance, some don't.
I don't keep the sabbath exactly, being free from the burden of the exacting Ordinances. As an ex-Seventh Day Adventist, I discovered that our modern calendar does not quite gibe with the ancient Hebrew calendar. On a Hight Sabbath, the week count started over, so that Sabbath/Saturday could fall on any day of the week of our modern calendar. The important thing, to me, is to take some time off, rest, and worship.
I think God picked them because they are the most stubbern, greedy, faithless people on the planet.
Originally posted by undo
reply to post by Lazarus Short
i'm not convinced of that, primarily because taking it that way, requires the gift of salvation to be constantly under threat due to sin. if it were that easy to lose it, we'd be back to old covenant standards and the point of having a messiah in the first place, would be lost.
Originally posted by KJV1611
We can thank England for the greek text used to make over 234 new perversions here in America. God help us.
Originally posted by undo
well if he's referring to the law being fulfiiled as a result of his crucifixion and resurrection, then
apparently the way we look at the law has changed or should change. paul seems to suggest the same when he
says, all things are permitted as a result of grace and the new covenant, but not all things are recommended or encouraged (paraphrasing). permissive will vs. perfect will. you can be in the permissive will of god as a result of grace, which means that the law is not void (because it still exists), but it no longer exists as a
standard over our lives in the way it once did. what we strive for, is to be in the perfect, rather than permissive will of god, but he's not sitting on top of our house waiting for us to make mistakes either, even if we may tend to do that to each other
edit on 3-4-2011 by undo because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by RSF77
I am not a believer, but I'm just going to bypass all the assumptions I have to make in order to even ask a few questions. In any case its about time for a good old god discussion, so I'll play.
Can the bible tell me why god was so obsessed with the lives and actions of primitive men, specifically a few individuals,
and appears to show a total lack of interest with the now more technically developed and impressive humankind? I would assume that when one of his creatures gains the ability to destroy the Earth, would god not do more than he did when we were still chucking spears for the most part.
An omnipotent god would have already known what was going to happen. The only way for this to occur is if he controls what happens and we have no free will,
not only that, he is the cause for all the suffering in world. Is god not completely omnipotent, but just enough so that he is not responsible for what his creations do?
How can god, in his omnipotence, show negative human emotions like anger and wrath? A perfect being would not display imperfect qualities.
Originally posted by Lazarus Short
Now, I have a serious question for our host, KJV1611, as follows:
I was doing some more work this afternoon on my book. It's theme is that God's relationship to Israel was like (and I say again, LIKE) a marriage.
I was listing all the passages in the books of Moses having to do with marriage, and got to Leviticus 26, where the blessings for obedience and the cursings for disobedience are listed (note that the cursings section is far longer).
In the cursings section, I noted that God said over and over that He would punish the people "seven times more" for their sins. I underlined,and found He had said it four times, each time in a different way. Mmmmmm...what could it mean? Knowing that many things in the OT are prophetic,
I calculated 4 X 7 = 28. Twenty-eight periods of time? What kinds of periods? The same section mentions the land "enjoying her sabbaths" while the people are in exile in the land of their enemies.
So my question is this - are we talking about the seven-year sabbath year cycle, or the fifty-one-year Jubilee cycle???
Now, I know that the Jubilee is not mentioned in this passage, but if it is that, then 4 X 7 X 51 = 1428 years. Further, we know that Israel began to be punished by God shortly after the "wedding" at Sinai, that is, after the whole golden calf episode. Now if we look to the crossing of the Jordan River forty years later as a sort of reset, then that year 2488 + 1428 = 3916 - within the lifetime of Jesus! If the chronology I have before me is correct, that would be eleven years before the Crucifixion. What are your thoughts?