Originally posted by Conspiracy Theorist
my first argument to support this statement is the fact that none of the books of the bible even claim to be the word of god.
Your argument is basically sound with the exception of a few of the books that claim to quote god's words.
2 Timothy 3:16 is often used to "prove" that the Bible is god's word, but this is a fallacious argument on several counts. Here's the KJV
All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in
The first count is that "given by inspiration of God" does not mean "written by god". To say a work is inspired means only that the writer had
god in mind. The religion section of a library is filled with such inspired works, yet no-one considers these to be god's word, nor are they
considered inerrant even by the authors themselves.
The second count is that Paul's letter to Timothy was not considered scripture by either Paul or Timothy. Paul was referring to established
scriptures, not his own personal letters, nor works that would come later on. Worse, we don't know what Paul and Timothy would have considered
scripture! We can guess it would have included the Law and the Prophets, but it likely included other noncanonical works such as the books of Enoch,
since Paul borrows imagery from them in some of his writings. They might have even considered Essene or gnostic writings as scripture. It's an
incredible leap of illogic to say that Paul was referring to what would become "the Bible" hundreds of years after his death, or even worse, that he
was referring to the KJV (incredibly, some people actually believe that!).
The third count is that Paul merely states that such scriptures are useful. He does not claim they are without error. Something can be false and
still be useful, such as a claim that some ethic was given by god himself. It may be false, yet it still keeps the sheep in line.
Next, notice that the word "is" was inserted by the writers of the KJV. Notice also the part I put in bold. The meaning of the passage rests on
the meaning of the word "theopneustos", which is translated in the KJV as "given by inspiration of god". The problem is, "theopneustos" is an
obscure word and no-one knows for certain what it means. The passage could mean any of the following:
"All scripture is given by inspiration of god..." [KJV]
"Every scripture inspired of god..." [ASV]
"All scripture that inspires the reader of god..." [Biblico-Theological Lexicon of New Testament Greek, 3rd edition]
These have drastically different meanings. The third is the scholarly perspective based on researching how the passage was rendered in the Arabic and
Ethiopian translations, as well as through greek linguistic analysis.
To claim that 2 Timothy 3:16 somehow proves that the Bible is god's word, is absurdly rediculous.