posted on Jul, 16 2003 @ 11:56 PM
Yes, but do you think it's right to redefine words in the langauge...after all language effects culture and society, just look at how well
Ebonics has screwed up the people who speaks that!
It could be argued that Ebonics developed as an effect of culture and society's continued oppression & denial of care issues with the "people who
The issue of redefining words in the language (RE: marriage) is complex. On one hand, it could be argued that the dictionary definition is
representative of the historical antecedants to the word itself- thus, not reflecting current societal trends. However, it could also be argued that
a common, unitary language must follow proper rules of grammar.
But then again, look at our culture's posting & writing styles. We don't follow exact rules of grammar either. We have naturally mutated our
utilization of language away from the original rule set. Even in spoken English, we have butchered things up fairly well. It is a natural part of
our cultural evolution just as are revolutions for the implementation of further rule sets. My personal view is that Ebonics is the direct result of
shoddy education (or no education at all, considering that some folks never go to school & are illiterate).
Although you may vehemently oppose the alteration of language, language is also tied to the community as a whole. This then opens into the whole
issue of requiring people to conform their behavior to a component of verbal language. If you do not fit the definition in the dictionary, you can
not receive the rewards that society has constructed upon that word. If the society consists of people of varying intelligence levels, they will
obviously adhere less to "accepted" definitions. What are we going to do with those folks?
This issue of "right" or "wrong" was a nice way to inspire an ethical debate.
[Edited on 17-7-2003 by MKULTRA]