It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
originally posted by: flammadraco
a reply to: StalkerSolent
Try again! There is Slavery in the New Testament as well. Children were still being sold into slavery in the first century.
Matthew 18:25: "But forasmuch as he had not to pay, his lord commanded him to be sold, and his wife, and children, and all that he had, and payment to be made."
Priests still owned slaves:
Mark 14:66: "And as Peter was beneath in the palace, there cometh one of the maids of the high priest:"
Jesus is recorded as mentioning slaves in one of his parables. It is important to realize that the term "servant" or "maid" in the King James Version of the Bible refers to slaves, not employees like a butler, cook, or maid. Here, a slave which did not follow his owner's will would be beaten with many lashes of a whip. A slave who was unaware of his owner's will, but who did not behave properly, would also be beaten, but with fewer stripes.
This would have been a marvelous opportunity for Jesus to condemn the institution of slavery and its abuse of slaves. But he is not recorded of having bothered to taken it:
That's pretty important.
Likely depends on who you asked. Wasn't it Socrates who asked the famous question "is something good because the gods approve of it, or do the gods approve of it because it is good?"
No, I'm not suggesting morality doesn't exist. I'm saying it doesn't come from the Bible or from a "creator god". I'm suggesting that, according to my personal moral compass, derived from empathy, those rules violate my personal, subjective moral standard, and are therefore immoral according to my viewpoint, and, many of them are either illegal or considered immoral in today's society's mores. If these morals don't apply to everyone, then they aren't objective.
It says "Thou Shall Not Kill".
Christians fighting against Christians! Who would've thunk it! Why did it take Jesus and his army 1900 years to end slavery in Christian territories?
Jesus didn't teach of an all inclusive god.
Round and round we go! On the basis that the Bible presents no objective moral standard that is true for everyone all the time! One must rely on their own moral compass when wading through the "advice" given in the Bible.
Why? Christian immediately started preaching their gods were demons and demonized pagan morality.
And if they aren't objective, they don't apply to everyone, so why does it matter that they violate your personal, subjective moral standard?
Oh no! It violates some people's personal, subjective moral standards for women to dress in anything remotely revealing (of the top of their heads) outside of the home. And their point of view is just as valid as yours, is it not?
Depends on the translation. It's pretty clear in the original language and in context that it means "murder."
If you cut out large bits of the New Testament, sure
I'm not certain why you persist in saying the Bible presents no objective moral standard (ever) when it pretty clearly does, at some points, present standards that are both moral and seem to be standards
Because, it sets up a standard outside the individual.
As long as it's agreeable to all those affected or involved, I don't care about other people's personal morality. It's just as valid as my own.
So what? Stoning a woman because she didn't bleed on her wedding night is still murder. Attacking a city "because God told you to" is NO reason to go in and murder, rape and steal.
Well, I was trying to stick with the words that are credited to Jesus, while he was supposedly alive, not what interpretations are mused by others.
You, nor anyone I've ever asked for that matter, have given me no examples of an "objective moral standard" within the pages of the bible. By morality, I mean a standard of conduct that reflects an individual's values of what is right and wrong, in any given situation.
So basically it's never wrong to punish people for their immoral actions?
So what? "Murder" isn't objectively wrong, according to you, so no biggie, right?
"Never" and "always" are objective terms and have no place in subjective situations.
I believe the punishment should fit the crime. Eternal damnation, for example, doesn't fit the crime of 80 years of non-belief.
As long as it's agreeable to all those affected or involved, I don't care about other people's personal morality. It's just as valid as my own.
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
You might say one should always never use "always" and "never," am I right?
But you have no criterion besides your subjective feeling that anything *is* a crime...or what punishment fits it. As far as I can tell, according to you, there should be no punishment, unless people are agreeable to it...right?
Presumably, someone wouldn't kill someone unless it was OK with their personal morality. So if that conflicted with the personal morality of everyone else, and they wanted to kill the killer, you would not be OK with the killer (because he didn't get agreement) but you also wouldn't be OK with his punishment (because the group didn't get his agreement.) Or am I missing something here?
originally posted by: Krazysh0t
originally posted by: StalkerSolent
You might say one should always never use "always" and "never," am I right?
No one shouldn't say that at all, because it is possible to speak objectively. For instance, "I will never spontaneously fly into space because that violates the laws of gravity." See. That is a perfectly valid use of the word never.
Me: But you have no criterion besides your subjective feeling that anything *is* a crime...or what punishment fits it. As far as I can tell, according to you, there should be no punishment, unless people are agreeable to it...right?
You: Right.
If the killer violated the social mores and was convicted and sentenced to death, I have no problem with the death penalty being moral. However, I can't say that, in his heart, the killer wasn't responding to something that he thought deserved the death penalty, and was therefore moral, in his view. Perhaps he killed his sister's rapist. I don't know.
People who refuse to get along socially should be corrected, so that society can run smoothly as possible.
Societies that run smoothly (as possible) allow for person growth, even spiritual growth.
So people must agree to their own punishment?
But what if he wanted to kill people for the heck of it? Why shouldn't he? Especially if he can get away with it.
How are you even defining "smoothly" here?
People get away with crimes all the time. There isn't anything to stop them, other than there own sense of morality. There are only measure we can take to deter them, like punishments or promises of hell fire forever. We can't force morality, we can only enforce laws.
Predictably,
and in such a way that groups can coexist and individuals can survive and, hopefully, thrive.
I never agreed to that.
So, we should try to accommodate groups like ISIS instead of wiping them out (because if we wipe them out, we are not furthering any of the three ends of society you set up.)
Do you have a driver's license, a car, a home, a job, pay taxes? Then, yes you did.
I don't see God or Jesus stopping them? How's that super transcendental morality standard doing? Not good, not good at all!