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The verses surrounding Isaiah 7:14 tell how Ahaz, the king of Judah, is told of a sign to be given in demonstration that the prophet's promise of God's protection is a true one. The sign is that an almah will give birth to a son who will still be very young when Judah's enemies will be destroyed. The almah is already pregnant, and Jewish translators have therefore rendered it as "young woman". Christian translations have traditionally rendered it as "virgin," where Isaiah's almah is identified with the Virgin Mary.
Originally posted by Phoenix267
reply to post by RealTruthSeeker
I'm going to play the devil's advocate here and explain why Jews do not see Isaiah 7:14 does not relate to Jesus. Since we don't have Jewish members or members who post about Judaism I thought I would share why Jews and Christians different on the bible.
Rabbi Tovia Singer was asked this question by different individual and replied in different ways to cover all points. I will share his answer about the word "alma" and how in Judaism is does not mean virgin.
In Christianity Jesus is believed to have been prophesied to be born of a virgin and will be the promise Messiah. They source various verses like Isaiah 7:14 to explain how it foreshadowed his virgin birth. However, in Judaism they see the verse differently. The word alma in Hebrew means "young woman" and does not indicate anything relating to virginity. Have they wanted to use the word virgin it would be "betulah" that expresses sexual purity. This is one of many reasons I do not see Isaiah 7:14 does not relate to Jesus.
Source
Originally posted by RealTruthSeeker
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.
Originally posted by dashen
It is meant to say that King Ahaz's wife would conceive a child and that she would name it Immanuel and that would be a sign to to compel the Hebrews of the time to repent from their naughty ways.
Originally posted by Deetermined
Zechariah 13:6
6 And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends.
Originally posted by Deetermined
forsaken of both her kings.
Without even acknowledging the word "virgin", this prophecy is still about Jesus being born and being the one who knows how to refuse evil. It's saying that Judah and Israel will split and be without any king while Jesus is becoming of age and getting ready to fill that gap.
edit on 25-6-2013 by Deetermined because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by dashen
You're right. They didn't allow Jesus to make it that far, that's why Judah and Israel are still split today, but Ezekiel 37 tells us that Jesus will bring the two back together again during the Millennial period and he will be reigning over them all.
Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by dashen
No, those verses are telling us that they won't need to prophesy any longer because EVERYONE will know who the Messiah (Jesus) is.
Those who try to claim differently or prophesying at all will probably be killed for doing so.
edit on 25-6-2013 by Deetermined because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Phoenix267
reply to post by RealTruthSeeker
I was explaining how the word is interpreted differently and one of the reasons why in Judaism that verse doesn't apply to Jesus. I have the book by Rabbi Tovia Singer where he explains more on the verse. I'll have to browse through it. Can you share how Christians see Jesus as Immanuel in Matthew.