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First let me ask.. Was Alexander the Great a real historical person? (First century would be "contemporary ", Jesus died in 32 AD)
Seems all sects of Judaism needed correction from their interpretation of corrupted Torah, that Jesus attempting to restore to it's correct state.
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
First let me ask.. Was Alexander the Great a real historical person? (First century would be "contemporary ", Jesus died in 32 AD)
Why first? Provide the contemporary sources and links, and then I'll answer your question.
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by adjensen
As previously discussed in this thread, there is very good Biblical reason to believe that the God that Jesus introduced was not Yahweh. His god was Abba. Jesus rejected the tyranny of the Old Testament God.
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
You can't cite contemporary sources. Just admit it.
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Well, they may have been wacky by your standards, but the Pharisees and Sadducee were wicked by Jesus' standards.
The original Hebrew-Aramaic name of Jesus is yeshu‘a, which is short for yehōshu‘a (Joshua), just as Mike is short for Michael. The name yeshu‘a occurs 27 times in the Hebrew Scriptures, primarily referring to the high priest after the Babylonian exile, called both yehōshu‘a (see, e.g., Zechariah 3:3) and, more frequently, yeshu‘a (see, e.g., Ezra 3:2). So, Yeshua’s name was not unusual; in fact, as many as five different men had that name in the Old Testament. And this is how that name came to be “Jesus” in English: Simply stated, this is the etymological history of the name Jesus: Hebrew/Aramaic yeshu‘a became Greek Iēsous, then Latin Iesus, passing into German and then, ultimately, into English, as Jesus.
Why then do some people refer to Jesus as Yahshua? There is absolutely no support for this pronunciation—none at all—and I say this as someone holding a Ph.D. in Semitic languages. My educated guess is that some zealous but linguistically ignorant people thought that Yahweh’s name must have been a more overt part of our Savior’s name, hence YAHshua rather than Yeshua—but again, there is no support of any kind for this theory.
askdrbrown.org... eally-a-pagan-corruption-of-the-name-zeus
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
I'm not an expert, or even a student of the history of military and governmental accomplishments of Alexander the Great, so I'm not the one to ask.
and I say this as someone holding a Ph.D. in Semitic languages. My educated guess is that some zealous but linguistically ignorant people thought that Yahweh’s name must have been a more overt part of our Savior’s name,
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
So, then you have no contemporary citation that proves the existence of the biblical Jesus. I thought not.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by NOTurTypical
The first mention wasn't Plutarch, it was actually Diodorus Siculus from the first century BC. Are you sure you know what you're talking about?
Originally posted by windword
reply to post by NOTurTypical
and I say this as someone holding a Ph.D. in Semitic languages. My educated guess is that some zealous but linguistically ignorant people thought that Yahweh’s name must have been a more overt part of our Savior’s name,
Are you rejecting my source?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
WHAT????
Yahshua means "YHWH" saves and He referred to the temple dedicated to YHWH as His Father's house!