reply to post by SkyLiner
You wrote: QUOTE
2nd Timothy 3:16 - All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in
πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος [καὶ is sometimes added here] ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς
ἐλεγμόν πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ
Unfortunately there are issues with your rather faulty 'translation' from the Greek, which would more precisely translate this phrase as
'EVERY GOD-BREATHED WRITING [ IS ] USEFUL FOR TEACHING AND FOR REPROOF AND FOR CORRECTION AND FOR INSTRUCTION IN THE WAYS OF RIGHTEOUSNESS..."
The word ESTI(N) is missing from the Greek MSS for this sentence (is/be) and thus we seem to be dealing with a corrupt transmission of the text at
least syntactically - and this of course affects the sense of the whole sentence.
It is clear that the writer means that ANY god-breathed (i.e. inspired) writing would be useful for teaching purposes within the Messianic community
etc. - but it is also clear that the writer does NOT mean that EVERY WRITING is useful for teaching and for reproof otherwise we would have to include
Sappho's Lesbian poetry (which after all was written down i.e. scripture) and (shock and awe !) Plato's Symposium, and anyone who can read classical
Greek knows what he has to say about Man-Boy love in that masterpiece of Literature (which by the way is also (technically) 'Scripture', i.e. a text
We also have to determine : which Writings ('scriptura') are god-breathed, exactly according to the writer of 2 Timothy (whoever he was, certainly not
Saul of Tarsus, his Greek Vocabulary and Syntax and his theological outlook is different) who did not specify WHICH Jewish scriptures were 'god
breathed' enough to be used for reproof or for teaching or for correction etc.
Certainly we must assume the writer was talking about what he considered to be the Hebrew Scriptures that he revered (whichever list he used), and not
any New Testament book, since none of these had gained any 'scriptural' authority in the 80s and 90s yet.
Since the Greek style and theological outlook of the Epistle of 2 Timothy is c. 80-95 CE, one has to remember that there was no 'bible' with specific
books (or specific versions of those books) between two covers that were considered 'scriptures', before the Council of Jamnia (Javneh) c. 91 CE.
Even as late as c. 120 AD the Rebbes were still arguing (long after Jerusalem was ground to Powder in the 1st failed Jewish War against Rome (66 to 72
CE) whether books like Esther or Song of Songs or even the Book of the Prophet Hezekiel were god-breathed/inspired (i.e. so holy that they lit.
'defiled the hands').
It wasn't until AFTER the Bar Kokhba revolt (c. 136 CE) that the Jews had a 'Bible between two covers', i.e. the Torah, the Prophets, The Psalms and
the Writings (e.g. books like Qoheleth 'Ecclesiastes')
For example, did the writer of 2 Timothy include in the category of 'god breathed' books such as 'A Copy of the Scroll of the Book of the Words of
Henoch the Son of Jared to All the Sons of Light in the Last Days' (i.e. I Henoch) as the writer of the 'Epitstle of Jude' whoever he was (Jude 1:14)
or the Dead Sea Scrolls group (abandoned in June of 68 CE) would have done?
Would the writer of 2 Timothy ALSO have included books as 'defiling the hands' as The Scroll of the Book of the Divisions of the Times into their
Jubilees and Weeks (aka The Book of Jubilees), or The Wisdom of Jesus ben Sirach (aka Sirach, or 'Ecclesaisticus'), or the book entitled 'The Scroll
of the Book of the Testaments of the 12 Patriarchs being the Sons of Yisro'el to all the Sons of Light in the Last Days' in his list of 'god breathed
Certainly the Dead Sea Scroll Messianic Priests included books like I Henoch and Testaments of the 12 and Jubilees in their own canon, and most likely
(to judge from the quotations in Jude and in the earliest Patristic writings of the Christians) most of the early Church did too, including the '12
So this little mis-quote of yours seems to have opened up a can of very fat juicy worms
Here are some scholarly attempts to translate this syntactically impossible sentence :
The Revised Standard Version of 1881 " All Scripture that is divinely inspired is also profitable"
The American Standard Version of 1901 reads. "Every scripture inspired of God [is] also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for
instruction which is in righteousness"
The New English Bible says "Every Scripture that is inspired of God is also useful (New English Bible)."
The New Revised Standard Version gives this as an alternate reading.
Every scripture inspired by God is also useful for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness."
Well, at least the translation scholars made an attempt to make sense of the mangled Greek...but be careful what you quote on ATS !!
edit on 11-3-2013 by Sigismundus because: stutteringggg computerrrr keyyboarddddd