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Originally posted by EarthCitizen07
reply to post by daddio
If the national government has been corporatised by the Act of 1871, does that not legally mean that the states have been corporatised as well? I would definitely think so! Those who say lets give more power to the states are making a good arguement, but more often then not, since the states relly on the district of columbia for funds, it becomes a weak to worthless arguement.
The federal government is an extension of the states, the states are an extension of the counties and counties are an extension of towns.
"Inasmuch as every government is an artificial person, an abstraction, and a creature of
the mind only, a government can interface only with other artificial persons. The imaginary,
having neither actuality nor substance, is foreclosed from creating and attaining parity
with the tangible. The legal manifestation of this is that no government, as well as any
law, agency, aspect, court, etc. can concern itself with anything other than corporate,
artificial persons and the contracts between them."
S.C.R. 1795, Penhallow v. Doane's Administraters (3 U.S. 54; 1 L.Ed. 57; 3 Dall. 54),
Supreme Court of the United States 1795
[--Not the "United States Supreme Court" –ed.]
Originally posted by Unvarnished
reply to post by WiindWalker
I wouldn't be surprised if curfews end up being imposed on the people after this tragic bill. They already have half of the American people living underneath the poverty line, what more do they want to control? Sometimes I wonder if it is enough for them.