Originally posted by EarthCitizen07
reply to post by daddio
If the national government has been corporatised by the Act of 1871, does that not legally mean that the states have been corporatised as well? I would definitely think so! Those who say lets give more power to the states are making a good arguement, but more often then not, since the states relly on the district of columbia for funds, it becomes a weak to worthless arguement.
The federal government is an extension of the states, the states are an extension of the counties and counties are an extension of towns.
You are correct, through the use of the "Zip Code", which was not fully implemented until 1970, the federal government has stretched it's arms to include all the states, incorporated INTO the 'union" just like a labor union. Not until you reclaim your sovereign de jure Citizen status, do you have the natural rights you were born with. We must recognize this and set the record straight, WE do not give the "state" the power to legislate TO us but FOR us, that is, they may regulate commerce AND THAT IS IT. ANY 'law" or bill passed as statute is commercial in nature and DOES NOT apply to human beings but to corporate fictions, and until you rebut THAT, you are under TPTB's ASSUMED jurisdiction. Again, it is all securites fraud and not legal or binding but NULL and VOID of any legal effect. BUT it MUST be rebutted.
