posted on May, 16 2009 @ 09:48 PM
reply to post by watchtheashes
Isaiah as you probably know appears in the Old Testament.
The deductions that certain aspects of this book directly relate to Jesus the Christ; are amitious, to say the least! You will most probably retort
with some prophetic mumbo-jumbo, but alas; the presence of faith one has to have to stomach and believe this.
Anyone with a little knowledge of hebrew will definately know that all hebrew letters are said to possess a numerical equivalent; which is the
reasoning of deducing the numerical attributes of the Old Testament.
Not sure how that goes for the New testament though, where Jesus is actually mentioned.
Seeing that Jesus and his contemparies spoke Aramaic, and the original New testament was originally written in Greek.
How does the bible code hold prevailance there?
One could use the Pythagorean model for giving numerical equivalents to Greek, and as Pythagoras did, to Roman letters- But hey, that would be
fortune-telling; as you are then dabbling into Numerology!
At any rate, I thought fortune-telling (by whatever means) was considered blasphemous