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originally posted by: UKTruth
"Uh, no they are not" is an irrelevant response as it assumes the conclusion of the argument, which i did not do. Good try, though.
Once again, I am not concluding that the Govt violated free speech in this case, only that you were wrong to state that free speech could NOT be violated unless the Govt was part of a case.
This is a victory against free speech...
Why? Is the Govt involved?
originally posted by: UKTruth
For that to conclude the argument, we would have to wipe clean a long history of cases where the 1st Amendment was a defence and those historical opinions and decisions that made the Defemation laws what they are today. Suggesting that is rather moot. How Jones' attorney handles things is up to him.
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
originally posted by: UKTruth
For that to conclude the argument, we would have to wipe clean a long history of cases where the 1st Amendment was a defence and those historical opinions and decisions that made the Defemation laws what they are today. Suggesting that is rather moot. How Jones' attorney handles things is up to him.
You obviously like to be pedantic. Your point is irrelevant as no one has argued that defamation suits violate the Constitution. Know why? Because these are private citizens suing each other, the government is not involved.
originally posted by: seagull
a reply to: Xtrozero
As has been pointed out, free speech is not freedom from consequence.
originally posted by: ParasuvO
a reply to: Xtrozero
No simple straight answers were ever offered.
And rarely are..which is yet another reason Occam's Razor is a great tool for the foolish to glaze their eyes over with.
originally posted by: UKTruth
As long as the case against Jones is decided on the criteria in place that give the 1st Amendment "breathing space" as the SC put it, then the 1st amendment will not have been violated.
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
originally posted by: UKTruth
As long as the case against Jones is decided on the criteria in place that give the 1st Amendment "breathing space" as the SC put it, then the 1st amendment will not have been violated.
The court case linked had to do with a government employee, no one in this case is.
originally posted by: Byrd
originally posted by: AspiringSorcerer
This is a victory against free speech, and if you can't understand that then there is no helping you. If you're cheering for the censorship of anyone, including people you personally disagree with no matter how insane you think they are, you don't believe in the fundamental freedoms laid out in the Bill of Rights. For everyone pushing the silencing of others, are you 100% certain this could never be used against your "side"?
This is free speech in action.
Jones is free to broadcast whatever he wants. The victims of his broadcast are free to step up and say "you are a filthy liar and you can't prove that and I'm suing you for slander."
He was free to try the "it's just entertainment" trope.
The law was free to say "And a ruling of slander against you is entertaining as well. Pay up."
Free speech doesn't mean "no consequences."
originally posted by: UKTruth
The 1st Amendment has zero to do with who is involved in this case or any other - and it never has.
Jones is protected under the 1st Amendment regardless of who is suing him.
In order for his 1st Amendment rights to be irrelevant in this case the claimant must meet the criteria laid out in defamation law.
In deciding Milkovich v. Lorain Journal Co., 497 U.S. 1 (1990), the Supreme Court ruled that opinions can be defamatory and that no broad constitutional shield for the expression of defamatory opinions is appropriate. It was the first time the Court addressed whether libel laws were applicable to expressions of opinion.
Though the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution was designed to protect freedom of the press, for most of the history of the United States, the U.S. Supreme Court failed to use it to rule on libel cases. This left libel laws, based upon the traditional "Common Law" of defamation inherited from the English legal system, mixed across the states. The 1964 case New York Times Co. v. Sullivan, however, radically changed the nature of libel law in the United States by establishing that public officials could win a suit for libel only when they could prove the media outlet in question knew either that the information was wholly and patently false or that it was published "with reckless disregard of whether it was false or not".
originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus
No, he isn't, as evidenced by this case going to trial.
“Alex Jones and InfoWars are not responsible for this tragedy. To punish them for First Amendment-protected speech on this matter of public concern will not bring back the lives lost.”
originally posted by: UKTruth
Fella. Yes, the entire Bill of Rights does indeed spell out what the govt cant do.
For example, it can pass no law to abridge the right to free speech.
Yet it did with defamation laws.
This has nothing to do with who is suing who. The 1st Amendment applies to all citizens, regardless of where they work.
... it could also be argued that the defamation laws themselves, no matter how favourable they are to the defendant, are unconstitutional, as a SC Justice opinion has stated. For now the obvious conflict remains.
“Alex Jones and InfoWars are not responsible for this tragedy. To punish them for First Amendment-protected speech on this matter of public concern will not bring back the lives lost.”
“Alex Jones and InfoWars are not responsible for this tragedy. To punish them for First Amendment-protected speech on this matter of public concern will not bring back the lives lost.”
Yes, the entire Bill of Rights does indeed spell out what the govt cant do.
No, the Constitution is not what the government can do