Originally posted by Shonet1430Putting words into my mouth again I see. First of all, yes I am referring to Jesus and Christian
tampering. When a book has been tampered with, IMO all validity sort of flies out the window.
I surmised correctly, therefore I put no words in
your mouth. Regards Josephus’ works then, you readily submit that Christians tampered with his words, and therefore you would rather cast a blind
eye to all such works. Yet, you have not explained what purpose he would have to fabricate the information on the temple. So another question comes
your way:
1)is it not also true that the authoritative information on all aspect of the temple during the 1st century ACE, comes to us from Josephus?
Therefore
But I said that Josephus is the ONLY one to mention the walls being leveled.
this account of same cannot be dismissed.
Correct?
As for the Jews "doctoring" their scriptures, the Torah is the only thing truly important to the Jews which has consistency.
They not
only doctored same, they rewrote the history of their Egyptian heritage into a new set of myths, and the Torah is nothing but the retelling of the
same Egyptian myths over and over.
And the initial Tanakh did in fact mention the Maccabees as the book of Maccabees was included.
Oh? And the two books were removed
because?
I do accept Zerubbabel's temple as the second and reject the idea of Ezekiel chapter 45 because chapters 1-24 are his oracles of judgment
against Israel and Jerusalem,
I understand your position, choose what suits your purpose and discard what does not. If Ezekiel or for that
matter any book is questionable in any part, then it should all be tossed. For if the author was deceitful in one area, he was likely deceitful in
others.
Ezekiel's prophecy is not regarding Zerubbabel's temple.
I have provided you with a timeline, you have provided nothing but denial.
Show me exactly to what his prophecy referred and substantiate your denial.
Of course it was a different temple. It was the second one. It was larger. It was modest. It lacked things like the ark,
Mention of the
Ark of the Testimony ceased before the looting of the temple by Neuchadnezzar, in fact, it ceased to be spoken about during Hezekiah’s reign.
Consequently, Zerubbabel’s temple also lacked the ark, did it not?
Ok here's a breakdown. Exodus -> Solomon's Temple -> Babylonian Exile -> Zerubbabel's Temple -> Roman Exile -> Third Temple
I asked
you to provide the requirement for three exiles before the third temple is rebuilt. A depiction as to which exiles happened when does not answer the
question. Further, you cannot be in Roman exile, since the Jews never acquired the exact piece of real estate promised to Abraham, in which case by
technicality they are still in the first exile. The request to provide information relative to Ezekiel’s prophecy or stating the temple will be
destroyed twice before its final rebuild has not been provided. Further, given that you state;
We are STILL in the Roman exile.
this
next does not make sense;
Putting this into perspective with "Herod's Temple" or "Onias Temple" there was NO exile..
since, Israel
was under Roman siege at the time of Herod.
First of all, I do bring up definitions on a daily basis. One, I have children that I want to make sure they know what they are talking about
if they use a word.
You are an adult debating on a message board, as am I, therefore, and speaking from my perspective only, while it is often
I find my opponent is of a tender age, it serves no purpose to be engaging them in debate if they cannot even understand grade 10 language. What good
does it do to be providing definitions of your words, just so they might begin to understand the meaning of a sentence?
Now I wish to draw you back to context and note some outstanding requests:
2) The mention of a prophesied 3rd temple.
3) Why would you expect the Tanakh to mention Herod?
4) Zerubbabel’s was a new temple because of a new foundation, according to you, why then was Herod’s not?
5) Your response to their being two schools of thought as to both Zeruabbabel’s and Herod’s temple being the second, and why, the other is not
considered.
Relative to the rest of your posts, and considering the unanswered above as well as the issues with your argument as outlined, I give you the
following analysis;
When one is called up into heaven, one should expect that being in the firmament, EWNS directions either do not apply or cannot be discernible, yet
Ezekiel, seemed to be firmly grounded by compass directions.
Ezekiel is the prophet upon whom Jews place all reliance for the rebuilding of the temple, yet, God while most willing to speak with him refuses
through Ezekiel himself to speak with the elders, ch. 20; God also decides to do away with an old adage on failure and declares;
'Son of man,
behold, they of the house of Israel say: The vision that he seeth is for many days to come, and he prophesieth of times that are far off.
Therefore say unto them: Thus saith the L-rd GOD: There shall none of My words be delayed any more, but the word which I shall speak shall be
performed, saith the L-rd GOD.' ch12
This supposed vision was nothing but a political statement intended to suggest that the plebeians are
not worthy of God’s voice, but listen to me, Ezekiel because I tell you I have his ear. Only in the eyes of those who desperately hang onto such
words, do those words mean sometime in the millennia to come. It is after all how one keeps the myth alive.
[edit on 6/6/05 by SomewhereinBetween]