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How many times does the temple need to be built before those who believe in the apocalyspse can count past two?
Solomon: built same the first time. (1)
Nebuzaradan burnt it to cinders
It was built for a second time by Zerubabbel. (2)
Destroyed again by Pompey
Rebuilt by Herod The Great. (3)
Three temples have come and gone. It is over!
Supposed warning on old structure:
No Gentile is to be approach within the balustrade
round the Temple and the peribolos.
Whosoever is caught will be guilty of his own death
which will follow.
Regarding the ark, does anyone who touches it still drop dead?
Also is it true that this guy Vendyl Jones is the inspiration for Indiana Jones and Raders of the Lost Ark?
Originally posted by BadMojo
No one touched the Ark itself. Two wooden poles were used to carry it, but yes, the Levites were the "Ark bearers".
By the way, thanks for pointing out my article dbate...
[edit on 31-5-2005 by BadMojo]
9 And when they came unto the threshingfloor of Chidon, Uzza put forth his hand to hold the ark; for the oxen stumbled.
10 And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzza, and he smote him, because he put his hand to the ark: and there he died before God.
Originally posted by Shonet1430I don't believe in the apocalypse and can count past two.
The rebuild by Herod is still the second temple. Herod refurbished it and even made additions to it.
Did I previously mention new somewhere?
My father in law is a project manager for a construction company. Currently, he is working on a school where there was some demolition work and there will be some rebuilding and additions. The school is not being completely leveled therefore, the parts that are taken out are being rebuilt. Is it a new school? No. It's the same school that is having some construction work done on it. See below. Herod made extensive repairs and also remodeled, thus he rebuilt.
2 : to make extensive changes in : REMODEL
intransitive senses
: to build again
synonym see MEND
The operative word here is “rebuild.”
Solomon built the temple using stone where the walls and floors of the rooms were lined with wood. 1 KGS 6:7:8.
Nebuzaradan raised it by fire. II KGS 25:9
Zerubbabel rebuilt same and laid new foundation.
Using your line of thinking thus far then, this is not the second temple since the stone would not have been destroyed by the fire. Yet, Zerubbabel’s temple is considered the second.
During the Macabbeen revolt, and by Antiochus’ direction, the temple walls were levelled.
Between his assault on the city walls as well as Pompey’s on the temple, such destruction is far greater than that of the fire, yet the fire damage is considered to be the first destruction of the temple. This is the second destruction of the temple.
Herod removed all of the old foundations with the purpose of rebuilding the temple to the splendour of Solomon’s. Ant. XV:iii.
This, a complete rebuilding of the temple, is the third.
Further, in an attempt to fulfil Isaiah’s prophecy, and after Antiochus destroyed the temple, Onias fled to Ptolemy in Egypt to build another. In total, there were four temples, where Onias’ is not considered a prophecy come true.
Did I previously mention new somewhere?
The below is edited from your offering on the definition of rebuld
2: to make extensive changes in: REMODEL
intransitive senses
:to build again
synonym see MEND
Therefore, if you wish to exclude Herod's temple as a rebuild, then you must also exclude Zerubbabels, in which case, you are two shy of your next temple goal and in disagreement with even the staunchest Jews as to this being the second; which by default can only mean you lean toward new.
Now I have no idea why one stoops to posting definitions on the internet, especially when it is not in their favour, because I have yet to witness anyone in a face to face conversation, haul out a dictionary definition in an effort to bolster their case.
And thank you for providing the words of the other warning. I focus on the message of that which I gave...gentiles keep out, you are not welcome in this house of God!
A new foundation was laid, and so you agree then that this was the second temple. The prophecy has nothing to do with the number we are trying to determine. Nor what feats the events pertain to, as those events are provided to show destruction.
Originally posted by Shonet1430
New foundation was laid. It was a fulfillment of Jeremiah's prophecy. Zerubbabel's temple was larger and modest. The second temple also coincided with the second exile.
ME: Using your line of thinking thus far then, this is not the second temple since the stone would not have been destroyed by the fire. Yet, Zerubbabel’s temple is considered the second.
New foundation was laid. It was a fulfillment of Jeremiah's prophecy. Zerubbabel's temple was larger and modest. The second temple also coincided with the second exile.
Oh but they were leveled. I quote from Josephus
The walls weren't leveled. The temple was desecrated.
Obviously those events don’t count as destruction as far as you are concerned. Moving on therefore; you accept the “new foundation” by Zerubbabel supports his building the second temple, yet;
But when Antiochus came into it, and saw how strong the place was, he broke his oaths, and ordered his army that was there to pluck down the walls to the ground; and when he had so done, he returned to Antioch….
Now there was a sedition of the men that were within the city, who did not agree what was to be done in their present circumstances, while some thought it best to deliver up the city to Pompey; but Aristobulus's party exhorted them to shut the gates, because he was kept in prison. Now these prevented the others, and seized upon the temple, and cut off the bridge which reached from it to the city, and prepared themselves to abide a siege; but the others admitted Pompey's army in, and delivered up both the city and the king's palace to him. So Pompey sent his lieutenant Piso with an army, and placed garrisons both in the city and in the palace, to secure them, and fortified the houses that joined to the temple, and all those which were more distant and without it. And in the first place, he offered terms of accommodation to those within; but when they would not comply with what was desired, he encompassed all the places thereabout with a wall, wherein Hyrcanus did gladly assist him on all occasions; but Pompey pitched his camp within [the wall], on the north part of the temple, where it was most practicable; but even on that side there were great towers, and a ditch had been dug, and a deep valley begirt it round about, for on the parts towards the city were precipices, and the bridge on which Pompey had gotten in was broken down….
But when the battering-engine was brought near, the greatest of the towers was shaken by it, and fell down, and broke down a part of the fortifications,…
You cannot in all honesty accept Zerubbabel’s new foundation as a building number 2, and deny Herod’s new foundation as building number 3. All we need to know about the Brand new third temple can be found in Ant. XV.
AND now Herod, in the eighteenth year of his reign, and after the acts already mentioned, undertook a very great work, that is, to build of himself the temple of God, (22) and make it larger in compass, and to raise it to a most magnificent altitude,…
So Herod took away the old foundations, and laid others, and erected the temple upon them,
It matters little the timeline as long as the temple had not been rebuilt between events, is that not so? And as you can see above, he did damage same, not only by his battering rams, but also by fire, which I did not bother to post.
There seems to be a flaw in your timeline and facts. Antiochus and Pompey were quite a long time away from one another. Also Pompey didn't damage the temple.
etc., I prefer not to base my assertions on the interpretation of others when I can read the same sources as they. I have not told you anything which you cannot verify for yourself from said source.
Relative to:168 BCE-Antiochus desecrated the Temple
165 BCE-Jews took Temple back..
Then show me the works of anyone of Israeli or Hebrew authority that claims Herod’s temple to be a fictitious rendering and I promise you I will objectively review same and alter my position if said discount is sound. As you can see from the excerpts I have provided and more so from the text itself, Herod built a temple in its entirety.
Josephus seems to be the only one saying that links Herod with complete new construction. The only new construction that Herod did was expanding the Temple Mount.
It does not matter what presumption we may make about why Onias built his. The prophecy does not claim that someone will build a temple to try and fulfill prophecy, or that so and so only will build same. This is the underlying fault with all such predictions. They cannot be rationalized or discounted or second-guessed to suit our needs. If in fact the prophecy is true, then the 3rd temple was built over 2,000 years ago and destroyed a century later.
Well let's see, Maybe because when Onias built his, Zerubbabel's was still standing. Maybe because the temple periods have to do with periods of exile. Maybe because Onias misinterpreted the scriptures.
Decide then, was Zerubbabel’s new and considered the 2nd temple, or new and not considered the 2nd temple? Should you choose the latter, then the 2nd temple is still to be built. So why are people waiting for the 3rd?Not true. Zerubbabel didn't mend or fix the Temple. He built a new one. Furthermore, I'm not shy anything. I'm right on par.
Therefore, if you wish to exclude Herod's temple as a rebuild, then you must also exclude Zerubbabels, in which case, you are two shy of your next temple goal and in disagreement with even the staunchest Jews as to this being the second; which by default can only mean you lean toward new.
Yes quite, and when one hauls out a dictionary definition in an attempt to make one’s case, it means they themselves had to go fishing for understanding.
The definition of rebuild was in my favor as shown above. Understanding the English language is powerful when presenting a case.
What is not true? The statement I made that such was supposedly written, or the warning itself?
And thank you for providing the words of the other warning. I focus on the message of that which I gave...gentiles keep out, you are not welcome in this house of God!
That's not true. That's like saying women weren't. There were separate sections for each set of people.
Originally posted by SomewhereinBetween
Yes quite, and when one hauls out a dictionary definition in an attempt to make one’s case, it means they themselves had to go fishing for understanding.
I don't know unless you show me the pot and the kettle.
Originally posted by mercury19
Originally posted by SomewhereinBetween
Yes quite, and when one hauls out a dictionary definition in an attempt to make one’s case, it means they themselves had to go fishing for understanding.
Is this not the same as the pot calling the kettle black?
A new foundation was laid, and so you agree then that this was the second temple.
I quote from Josephus
It matters little the timeline as long as the temple had not been rebuilt between events, is that not so? And as you can see above, he did damage same, not only by his battering rams, but also by fire, which I did not bother to post.
Decide then, was Zerubbabel’s new and considered the 2nd temple, or new and not considered the 2nd temple?
Should you choose the latter, then the 2nd temple is still to be built. So why are people waiting for the 3rd?
Yes quite, and when one hauls out a dictionary definition in an attempt to make one’s case, it means they themselves had to go fishing for understanding.
What is not true? The statement I made that such was supposedly written, or the warning itself?
Somehow I gather the tampereing to which you refer is regarding the references to Jesus and James, which would be implying that Christians did the tampering. With that I cannot disagree. When it comes to his explanation of Herod's temple however, there is no reason for Christian meddling in that regard, and so you must mean that his works were also tampered with by the Jews. This implies they would have no issue doctoring their scriptures either. With the latter I also do not disagree. Obviously the Christians would have been the last to do the tampering in any case.
Originally posted by Shonet1430Josephus is the ONLY writer to say the walls were leveled. It's not in the Talmud and it's not in the Tanakh. It's not anywhere but having to do with Josephus, the man whose writings as far as Jesus is concerned appears to be tampered with. Taking that into consideration, nothing else of his can be taken seriously IMO until his credibility is establish.
According to Ezra, Zerubbabel’s temple was in fact that which was prophesied by Haggai:
2:9The glory of this latter house shall be greater than that of the former, saith HaShem of hosts; and in this place will I give peace, saith HaShem of hosts.' …
Where Ezra obviously recounts events at the time of Nebuchadnezzar in the 6th century.
6:14 And the elders of the Jews builded and prospered, through the prophesying of Haggai the prophet and Zechariah the son of Iddo. And they builded and finished it, according to the commandment of the G-d of Israel, and according to the decree of Cyrus, and Darius, and Artaxerxes king of Persia. See also ch5:1,2
Is that so? Please provide th erelevant passages requiring three exiles before the 3rd and final temple is rebuilt, I must have missed those.
Originally posted by Shonet1430
Ok let me clear this up for you. I'm aware of what Pompey did and how he got into the Temple, Zerubbabel's. Each temple building had to do with an exile. There are three, hence there will be three temples It does not matter how many times a temple gets built according to prophecy, if there is no exile, it doesn't matter. .
Some do yes, I am notone of those "some people." Nevertheless, I take the position that anyone debating should at least be up to the task, that is not always so, but resorting to posting dictionary definitions is not something you would find me doing to try and make a point, simply because I would not do so in everday conversation with another, and were I to resort to same, means that I look to something else to bolster my argument, because I need help and an aversion.
Me- Yes quite, and when one hauls out a dictionary definition in an attempt to make one’s case, it means they themselves had to go fishing for understanding.
That's not true at all. Some people lack understanding of the many different usages of words and sometimes altogether. When a lawyer brings up a precedent, is he fishing for understanding? No. He's supporting his case.
Then take that up with those who carved the inscription, I presented the supposed text, I did not compose it. There is nothing either you or I can do about same, so the point is moot and irrelevant. Much like the dictionary definition.
What is not true? The statement I made that such was supposedly written, or the warning itself?
The statement that Gentiles aren't allowed in G-d's house. There were sections for Jewish men, Jewish women, and Gentiles. So to say they weren't allowed is false. To say they weren't allowed along with the Jewish women not being allowed in certain parts is true.
Somehow I gather the tampereing to which you refer is regarding the references to Jesus and James, which would be implying that Christians did the tampering. With that I cannot disagree. When it comes to his explanation of Herod's temple however, there is no reason for Christian meddling in that regard, and so you must mean that his works were also tampered with by the Jews. This implies they would have no issue doctoring their scriptures either. With the latter I also do not disagree. Obviously the Christians would have been the last to do the tampering in any case.
I am at a loss as to why you even mention the Tanakh when it comes to Herod, since the Tanakh’s record of Jewish history ends almost 400 years before. Neither did it reference Alexander the Great, nor the Maccabees. By extension of your argument then, the accounts of their histories are also false.
You accept Zerubbabel’s temple as the second, and rightly so since, the prophecy to rebuild a second temple was made in Ezekiel where God made his promises to forevermore restore Israel to the Jews, (ch45). Ezekiel lived during the time of Jehoiachin and Nebuchadnezzar, late 7th to 6th century.
Zerubbabel’s temple rebuild as recounted in Haggai, occurs during the reign of Cyrus, circa mid 6th century.
Hence, Ezekiel’s prophecy was made before this temple was built.
It was by god’s urging that Zerubbabel was to rebuild the temple. According to Haggai, it is very clear that God considered this to be a different temple;
2:9The glory of this latter house shall be greater than that of the former, saith HaShem of hosts; and in this place will I give peace, saith HaShem of hosts.' …
According to Ezra, Zerubbabel’s temple was in fact that which was prophesied by Haggai:
6:14 And the elders of the Jews builded and prospered, through the prophesying of Haggai the prophet and Zechariah the son of Iddo. And they builded and finished it, according to the commandment of the G-d of Israel, and according to the decree of Cyrus, and Darius, and Artaxerxes king of Persia. See also ch5:1,2
Where Ezra obviously recounts events at the time of Nebuchadnezzar in the 6th century.
But is it not so that there are two schools of thought on which of Zerubbabel’s and Herod’s temples is the second?
Yet, the words supposedly uttered by God as shown above clearly differentiate one as the former and the other as the latter.
To restate relevant dates: Nebuchadnezzar’s reign was circa 604 to 561BCE. Ezekiel supposedly prophesied around 597-570BCE.; Cyrus was king from circa 559-530BCE, during which time the temple was rebuilt. Both Ezra and Haggai therefore supposedly speaking of current events, would either have to be placed during that same time or after the fact, (which would have far too many implications on the dating of the books).
The issue behind the two camps therefore is that neither wishes to accept that the temple was in fact built three times, since to do so would be declare the prophesies of Israel’s glory false.
Instead, those who cannot ignore the words of Ezra 6:14 and Haggai 2:9, and they would each do this because 1) The dimensions of Zerubbabel’s were not disclosed by the redactors and cannot therefore be compared to the dimensions prescribed by Ezekiel: 1a) Herod’s was also not those of Ezekiel’s dimensions.
All that aside, there is no prophecy of a third temple, is that also not correct? Ezekiel, given the dates above, made his prophesy after the destruction of the first temple and before the construction of the second. He mentioned nothing of a third. In fact, the reason a 3rd temple is touted is because by hook or by crook, if one ever is erected again, it will be made to Ezekiel’s measurements.
Is that so? Please provide th erelevant passages requiring three exiles before the 3rd and final temple is rebuilt, I must have missed those.
Some do yes, I am notone of those "some people."
Nevertheless, I take the position that anyone debating should at least be up to the task, that is not always so, but resorting to posting dictionary definitions is not something you would find me doing to try and make a point, simply because I would not do so in everday conversation with another, and were I to resort to same, means that I look to something else to bolster my argument, because I need help and an aversion.
Then take that up with those who carved the inscription, I presented the supposed text, I did not compose it. There is nothing either you or I can do about same, so the point is moot and irrelevant. Much like the dictionary definition.
I surmised correctly, therefore I put no words in your mouth. Regards Josephus’ works then, you readily submit that Christians tampered with his words, and therefore you would rather cast a blind eye to all such works. Yet, you have not explained what purpose he would have to fabricate the information on the temple. So another question comes your way:
Originally posted by Shonet1430Putting words into my mouth again I see. First of all, yes I am referring to Jesus and Christian tampering. When a book has been tampered with, IMO all validity sort of flies out the window.
this account of same cannot be dismissed. Correct?
But I said that Josephus is the ONLY one to mention the walls being leveled.
They not only doctored same, they rewrote the history of their Egyptian heritage into a new set of myths, and the Torah is nothing but the retelling of the same Egyptian myths over and over.
As for the Jews "doctoring" their scriptures, the Torah is the only thing truly important to the Jews which has consistency.
Oh? And the two books were removed because?
And the initial Tanakh did in fact mention the Maccabees as the book of Maccabees was included.
I understand your position, choose what suits your purpose and discard what does not. If Ezekiel or for that matter any book is questionable in any part, then it should all be tossed. For if the author was deceitful in one area, he was likely deceitful in others.
I do accept Zerubbabel's temple as the second and reject the idea of Ezekiel chapter 45 because chapters 1-24 are his oracles of judgment against Israel and Jerusalem,
I have provided you with a timeline, you have provided nothing but denial. Show me exactly to what his prophecy referred and substantiate your denial.
Ezekiel's prophecy is not regarding Zerubbabel's temple.
Mention of the Ark of the Testimony ceased before the looting of the temple by Neuchadnezzar, in fact, it ceased to be spoken about during Hezekiah’s reign. Consequently, Zerubbabel’s temple also lacked the ark, did it not?
Of course it was a different temple. It was the second one. It was larger. It was modest. It lacked things like the ark,
I asked you to provide the requirement for three exiles before the third temple is rebuilt. A depiction as to which exiles happened when does not answer the question. Further, you cannot be in Roman exile, since the Jews never acquired the exact piece of real estate promised to Abraham, in which case by technicality they are still in the first exile. The request to provide information relative to Ezekiel’s prophecy or stating the temple will be destroyed twice before its final rebuild has not been provided. Further, given that you state;
Ok here's a breakdown. Exodus -> Solomon's Temple -> Babylonian Exile -> Zerubbabel's Temple -> Roman Exile -> Third Temple
this next does not make sense;
We are STILL in the Roman exile.
since, Israel was under Roman siege at the time of Herod.
Putting this into perspective with "Herod's Temple" or "Onias Temple" there was NO exile..
You are an adult debating on a message board, as am I, therefore, and speaking from my perspective only, while it is often I find my opponent is of a tender age, it serves no purpose to be engaging them in debate if they cannot even understand grade 10 language. What good does it do to be providing definitions of your words, just so they might begin to understand the meaning of a sentence?
First of all, I do bring up definitions on a daily basis. One, I have children that I want to make sure they know what they are talking about if they use a word.
This supposed vision was nothing but a political statement intended to suggest that the plebeians are not worthy of God’s voice, but listen to me, Ezekiel because I tell you I have his ear. Only in the eyes of those who desperately hang onto such words, do those words mean sometime in the millennia to come. It is after all how one keeps the myth alive.
'Son of man, behold, they of the house of Israel say: The vision that he seeth is for many days to come, and he prophesieth of times that are far off.
Therefore say unto them: Thus saith the L-rd GOD: There shall none of My words be delayed any more, but the word which I shall speak shall be performed, saith the L-rd GOD.' ch12