It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
originally posted by: FlyersFan
You are wrong. Take a bible study course.
Protestant (non fundamentalist) or Catholic. Your choice.
They'll say the same thing.
originally posted by: cooperton
You continuing to say that doesn't make it true. I already showed you what a Catholic priest said about it:
The extent you go to avoid admitting you're wrong is just absurd
originally posted by: FlyersFan
And I already told you ... you would be able to find a person here or there that disagree but Catholicism and Protestantism both agree that Peter was NOT possessed. Every Mass. Every Sunday Service. Every bible study. Every Catechism class. Every Sunday School. Every homily. Every Sermon. Every seminary class. Every Catholic TV show on this. Pretty much every googled protestant and catholic website. 2 billion Christians agree.
The Greek grammar is unambiguous that:
Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative
Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative
That is, Jesus said to Peter, "Get behind me, O Satan." That is, it appears that Satan had inspired the words of Peter and was at that moment dominating his thoughts - Satan was using Peter as a mouthpiece for himself! [An eerie reflection of Gen 3:1-8 with the serpent??]
There are only three times that the vocative case is used for someone (always Jesus!) is speaking directly to Satan: Matt 4:10, 16:23, Mark 8:33. Thus, Matt 16:23 is significant.
link
originally posted by: cooperton
originally posted by: FlyersFan
The devil never spoke through Peter. Peter was never possessed. That's some pretty bad theology you've got going there. Jesus said 'get thee behind me Satan' ... he was making a point that Peter was saying something against Christ's mission on Earth, and was not saying that Peter was possessed.
Got Questions
Is gotquestions.org your new catechism? Lol.
Satan was speaking through Peter, trying to get Jesus to not go through with the crucifixion. That's the most straight-forward interpretation of what was happening.
Are you trying to make the case that Jesus incorrectly identified Satan as being the influence of Peter's words?
However, when Scripture uses the title “ha satan,” translators, mostly influenced by their particular theology, will translate it as a specific name, rendering it “Satan.” This ignores the fact that almost everywhere else it is used it does not refer to a specific person, it is not a name, but it is a title or designation used for anyone who seeks to obstruct the will of God, including humans.
It simply means “the adversary.” However, because we tend to translate Scripture through the lens of our theology, rather than allowing Scripture to form our theology, we develop well-meaning, but misguided ways of interpreting what we read in the Bible.
Taking into consideration what we have already discussed with regard to the use of the title “ha satan,” does it really make sense that Peter was possessed, or that he was under the influence of a demon? Not at all. Peter’s emotions had gotten the best of him. He wanted to defend His master against His enemies.
originally posted by: cooperton
Here's a good perspective that explains the grammar in the Greek
originally posted by: FlyersFan
originally posted by: cooperton
Here's a good perspective that explains the grammar in the Greek
You continually fail to provide the ENTIRE QUOTE which decides the ENTIRE CONTEXT.
But Jesus turned and said to Peter, “Get behind Me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to Me. For you do not have in mind the things of God, but the things of men.”
Jesus wouldn't have told Satan 'you do not have in mind the things of God, but the things of men'. That makes no sense. He was obviously talking to Peter.
Peter was full of human emotion not wanting his Master to suffer and die. He was either just being moved by human thoughts and feelings or was influenced by Satan trying to have him make Jesus stumble. Either way .. Peter wasn't possessed.
Catholics and Protestants agree.
originally posted by: FlyersFan
You continually fail to provide the ENTIRE QUOTE which decides the ENTIRE CONTEXT.
Jesus wouldn't have told Satan 'you do not have in mind the things of God, but the things of men'.
originally posted by: randomuser2034
Yes. It is good to find an accord. And an accurate one. No one, even intelligent and studied people, such as Cooperton understands or knows everything. We are all learning every day. I know every time I pick up the Bible and read it (which I try to do every day) I learn new and exciting things. Even after studying it for decades.
ETA:
We can all learn from each other.
originally posted by: randomuser2034
When the Bible uses the term "Satan" it is not necessarily referring to the fallen spirit angel that made himself into Satan the Devil. Satan means Resister. When Jesus told Peter to "get behind me Satan" he was referring to Peter as a resistor to the will of God.
originally posted by: cooperton
Well you keep telling me to find a Catholic source so here it is again:
but the Greek grammar shows that Jesus is addressing Satan.
It would be odd for him to be addressing a metaphor rather than the literal fallen angel speaking through Peter.
originally posted by: FlyersFan
Incorrect.
I have never told you to find a Catholic source.
Your reading comprehension sucks.
AGAIN ... THE FULL TEXT (which you refuse to acknowledge)
CLEARLY Jesus is speaking to Peter the entire time.
Jesus would not have said those things to Satan, but He WOULD to a human, Peter.
Incorrect. The grammar OF THE ENTIRE TEXT shows Jesus is talking to Peter.
You keep taking the first part as if it was the only thing said. And it's not.
You are wrong. Peter was not possessed.
originally posted by: cooperton
You just said on the prior page that I ought to find a Catholic Bible study.
I have addressed it multiple times,
Here he is saying that Jesus is continuing to address Satan with his following comment. Peter is not the stumbling block, that wouldn't make sense. Peter is a disciple. The stumbling block is Satan ....
What grammar are you saying specifically? Because the grammar shows he is addressing Satan:
Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative
Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative
Satan was speaking through Peter in that moment, the Greek grammar shows Jesus is addressing Satan.
originally posted by: Kurokage
Wow, you really are the typical Christian bigot aren't you??
originally posted by: FlyersFan
It's stating the opinion and theology and beliefs of 2 billion Christians.
originally posted by: Kurokage
Wow, you really are the typical Christian bigot aren't you??
She's lashing out insulting my intelligence and I'm the bigoted one?
originally posted by: cooperton
The Catholic priest...
originally posted by: cooperton
originally posted by: FlyersFan
It's stating the opinion and theology and beliefs of 2 billion Christians.
This statement is just patently untrue. The Catholic priest disagrees with you. The grammar disagrees with you. You are free to believe whatever you want, but stop berating people for having a different opinion than you
originally posted by: Kurokage
Wow, you really are the typical Christian bigot aren't you??
She's lashing out insulting my intelligence and I'm the bigoted one?