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originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Smigg
No, because- as I've said already- it was the Father who spoke at the baptism.
The disinction between the Father and the Son is a distinction within God, not between God and something else.
You are shamelessly pertinacious, aren't you? I point out that you have been angaged in a slightly misleading piece of word-switching, and you just repeat it.
originally posted by: Smigg
So is Jesus Christ God Himself creator of the universe ?
I believe the answer is no, Jesus was The Son Of God in the flesh, a separate entity with His own identity and free will. Just as our children are genetic copies of ourselves with their own identity Christ is a spiritual copy of God with His own identity separate from Gods. I'm not saying Christ Isn't a God, He is, He's God of this Earth or at least He soon will be, just not God of the universe. He is a representation of God because He's actually related to God and so is of God and how God is....for us so we can relate to Him.
When Christ used the term "I Am" He was being truthful in the sense that God has always existed and if Christ is from God then so Has Christ, His birth on Earth doesn't necessarily mean that's when He came into existence. Many prophets stand on the right hand of God but none sit as Christ does and that's because Christ is of God and the prophets are not.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Sookiechacha
I stand by the argument from John ch1 v3, which I've already given.
Our understanding of anything Jesus said needs to be compatible with that.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Smigg
The short answer is in the first line of my original reply.
In the teaching of the church, Christ is BOTH God AND man.
Besides being God, he is fully human.
Every quotation you can give pointing out that Jesus is human only confirms what the church has always said; that Christ is also human;
"Equal to the Father as touching his Godheaad; and inferior to the Father as touching his manhood" (Athanasian creed again).
You have done nothing more than give me a list of references confirming the "inferior to his Father as touching his manhood" part.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Smigg
No, what you are showing is that the Son is a separate person from the Father.
Which is an essential element in Christian teaching.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Sookiechacha
The description of the LOGOS continues down to v11 (and indeed v18), and that continuity identifies him firmly as becoming the same person known as Jesus of Nazareth.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Smigg
My interpretation is the standard interpretation of the church and is consistent with the moral of John ch1 v3, that the Son is not to be listed in the category of "created things".
"He is inferior to God as touching his manhood".
Your interpretation feels better to you because you have decided that this is what you want to believe. There is no really effective way of getting past what somebody doggedly wants to believe, so there's no point in putting too much work into it.
I can only re-iterate; there is a distinction, and it lies in the fact that the Father is distinct from the Son. As the church has always taught.
originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: Smigg
Your interpretation feels better to you because you have decided that this is what you want to believe. There is no really effective way of getting past what somebody doggedly wants to believe, so there's no point in putting too much work into it.