posted on Dec, 21 2012 @ 02:26 AM
Why should it be GMT and not the timezone that the the Mayan Peninsula is in, which happens to be CST for us.
Some people just can't get past "timezone"-based thinking.
The Mayan calendar is not based on timezones, it's based on accurate telling of time. We later created timezones, and then had to retro-fit the Mayan
way of telling time INTO the timezone-specific thinking.
Did you really think timezones existed in the exact same form thousands of years ago, as they exist now? Do you consider them some kind of permanent
creations of the nature? Many of them are very arbitrary, and then there's daylight savings time, which is a complete fabrication, and so on.
Basically 'timezones' are an artificial concept, an 'agreement', if you will. Mayans did not have such an agreement. They told "when", and it's
up to us to calculate what that means in modern time. When an event happens at a given moment, timezones only matter as a calculation of what that
moment is, told in the language of the timezones. But it's still the same exact moment all over the world, so in that sense, timezones do not matter!
Why would you calculate the moment according to any Mayan peninsula, if you do not live there? It wouldn't make much sense, now, would it?
Time happens "outside timezones", and the timezones are just a tool to calculate "what the clock will show at a given location when the event
happens" - it's not the other way around, like your question suggests. Sheesh! Please use your brain!