posted on Oct, 18 2012 @ 09:23 AM
Originally posted by jmdewey60
Jesus is no less Hebrew than James or Judas.
You already just said Jesus = Joshua, so how is all of a sudden Jesus a Greek name?..
Let me try to explain what NotUrtypical is getting at;
Is "Moscow" a Russian name or an English name?
You could say either, because that's not the way the Russians pronounce or spell it. A name which was originally Russian has been re-modelled to suit
Simllarly "Londres" is the name of an English city re-modelled to suit French lips.
That's exactly what we've got in the New Testament. All the New Testament forms of the names we anglicise as "John", "James", "Judas", "Jesus" are
based on Hebrew/Aramaic forms, but re-modelled to suit Greek-speaking lips, just as they have since been re-modelled twice over to suit Latin and
They are Hebrew/Aramaic names in Greek form, just as "Peking" is a Chinese name in English form.
As for the language which was actually spoken by Jesus, this is discussed in the very first section of "New Testament Theology" by Joachim Jeremias.
It is called "The Aramaic basis of the LOGIA of Jesus", which gives away his answer to the question. The evidence includes a number of Aramaic words
and phrases embedded in the gospel accounts, like TALITHA KOUM (Mark ch5 v41) and ELI ELI LAMA SABACHTHANI (Matthew ch27 v46).
Anyway, I think the three of us agree on the central point at issue in this thread, that the exact pronuciation of the name is not of the essence of
the Christian faith (if it had been , someone would have said so in the New Testament instead of waiting until now).
edit on 18-10-2012 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)