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Originally posted by PurpleChiten
But if it was, you would use pi
but 1 mile thick slabs placed untop eachother
with 1 mile in difference between each diameter
Originally posted by 0mage
reply to post by PurpleChiten
This may be safe in measures small
but not in measures large atall
please re-examine your filthy ball
for it is not a ball atall
but 1 mile thick slabs placed untop eachother
with 1 mile in difference between each diameteredit on 19-5-2012 by 0mage because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Kr0nZ
afaik a sphere only has one diameter
I get the feeling your trying to slow walk us towards something
Originally posted by 0mage
reply to post by PurpleChiten
u are ignoring a very simple thing.
but what is the 'r' you speak of measured in
you must ponder my words
until it is clear
ponder on the equation of the sphere
how it was derived
and what it describes
Then draw out the shape it will bare
a flaw very critical will appear
when miles is the unit of measure
with 1 mile in difference between each diameter
Originally posted by PurpleChiten
When you look at the formula as derived through calculus instead of the ancient Greek method, it shows that it is accurate and therefore precise.