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Originally posted by Indigo5
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
and satisfying yourself that all Pelosi, et al, want to do is limit free speech to "natural born persons".
In as much that that I would like to limit the definition of "person" to living, breathing, human beings, yes...I would like to limit the definition.
You have yet to answer my basic question, here or in past threads.
If the founders had intended "free Speech" to include media originating from legal entities, why then did they also choose to include "freedom of the press" in the firrst amendment?
Would not that have been covered under "Speech"?
Despite popular misunderstanding the right to freedom of the press guaranteed by the first amendment is not very different from the right to freedom of speech. It allows an individual to express themselves through publication and dissemination. It is part of the constitutional protection of freedom of expression. It does not afford members of the media any special rights or privileges not afforded to citizens in general.
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
...but in the context used in the First Amendment, "press" is used to describe a machine, the printing press, which relies upon placing pressure upon an inked surface. As radio and television technologies were created, at some point the word "press" became equated with the entirety of media, including broadcasts, but this has nothing to do with the "Founders" intent.
Originally posted by neo96
For the record anyone is free to post in any forum in any thread.
Don't have to like it but you do have to deal with it.
Guess only some people are allowed free speech.edit on 24-4-2012 by neo96 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by ProfEmeritus
I'm sure you impress your customers of these alleged S-Corps you have, with your spelling and grammar.
Originally posted by ProfEmeritus
but have diverted the conversation to the point of "gotchas". Have a nice day.
Originally posted by ownbestenemy
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
...but in the context used in the First Amendment, "press" is used to describe a machine, the printing press, which relies upon placing pressure upon an inked surface. As radio and television technologies were created, at some point the word "press" became equated with the entirety of media, including broadcasts, but this has nothing to do with the "Founders" intent.
To add to your fact on this JPZ, here is the known dictionary used in the period that the Founders would have likely utilized and learned from.
Johnson's Dictionary
In that we see the entry for "the press" and it reads: "The instrument in which books are printed." When the founder's utilized the wordage of "the Press" it was in the context as you stated the tool in which we take the spoken word and apply it to the written. May it be the computer, pen, pencil or the press, we have the Right to use whatever means to produce our thoughts and speech.
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
Originally posted by Indigo5
Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
and satisfying yourself that all Pelosi, et al, want to do is limit free speech to "natural born persons".
In as much that that I would like to limit the definition of "person" to living, breathing, human beings, yes...I would like to limit the definition.
You have yet to answer my basic question, here or in past threads.
If the founders had intended "free Speech" to include media originating from legal entities, why then did they also choose to include "freedom of the press" in the firrst amendment?
Would not that have been covered under "Speech"?
You seem to want to somehow equate "legal entities" with "press", but why you are doing this is not clear. Press is generally used as a verb, but in the context used in the First Amendment, "press" is used to describe a machine, the printing press, which relies upon placing pressure upon an inked surface. As radio and television technologies were created, at some point the word "press" became equated with the entirety of media, including broadcasts, but this has nothing to do with the "Founders" intent.
Those few corporations that existed at the founding were authorized by grant of a special legislative charter.
Corporate sponsors would petition the legislature, and the legislature, if amenable, would issue a charter that specified the corporation's powers and purposes and "authoritatively fixed the scope and content of corporate organization," including "the internal structure of the corporation." J. Hurst, The Legitimacy of the Business Corporation in the Law of the United States 1780–1970,pp. 15–16 (1970) (reprint 2004).
Corporations were created, supervised, and conceptualized as quasi-public entities, "designed to serve a social function for the state."Handlin & Handlin, Origin of the American BusinessCorporation, 5 J. Econ. Hist. 1, 22 (1945).
It was "assumed that [they] were legally privileged organizations that had to be closely scrutinized by the legislature because their purposes had to be made consistent with public welfare." R. Seavoy, Origins of the American Business Corporation, 1784–1855, p. 5 (1982).
The individualized charter mode of incorporation reflected the "cloud of disfavor under which corporations labored" in the early years of this Nation. 1 W. Fletcher, Cyclopedia of the Law of Corporations §2, p. 8 (rev. ed. 2006); see also Louis K. Liggett Co. v. Lee, 288 U. S. 517, 548–549 (1933) (Brandeis, J., dissenting) (discussing fearsof the "evils" of business corporations); L. Friedman, A History of American Law 194 (2d ed. 1985)
("The word ‘soulless' constantly recurs in debates over corporations. . . . Corporations, it was feared, could concentratethe worst urges of whole groups of men").
Thomas Jefferson famously fretted that corporations would subvert the Republic.54 General incorporation statutes, and widespread acceptance of business corporations as socially useful actors, did not emerge until the 1800's. See Hansmann & Kraakman, The End of History for Corporate Law, 89 Geo. L. J. 439, 440 (2001) (hereinafter Hansmann& Kraakman) ("[A]ll general business corporation statutesappear to date from well after 1800").
The Framers thus took it as a given that corporationscould be comprehensively regulated in the service of the public welfare.
Unlike our colleagues, they had little trouble distinguishing corporations from human beings,and when they constitutionalized the right to free speech in the First Amendment, it was the free speech of individual Americans that they had in mind.
Originally posted by Indigo5
Your argument is disproven by your own source...
In the same contemporary dictionary we find the defintion of "Speech" to also include "written marks" so by your logic the inclusion of "press" in the first amendment was redundant?
johnsonsdictionaryonline.com...