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English derived from Paleo-Hebrew, it is a shamitic (shemitic/semitic) language

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posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:05 AM
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I stumbled onto an interesting website that has an incredible amount of evidence linking both the english language and the greek language with paleo-hebrew (pre-form of hebrew language pre-dates modern hebrew but post dates ancient hebrew). This site also goes into detail about how YHWH's name may not even be YHWH but IEUE (pronounced EE-OO-EH, or sounding like EYUWEH).

Is it possible that of all the languages on the planet that english is the most similar to hebrew? This site is well worth exploring, and the implications are astounding. Think, how would the hebrew language have spread to western europe thousands of years ago when they were supposedly isolated to the middle eastern region? Suddenly the hebrew 22 letter alphabet becomes even closer to the english 25 letter alphabet.

Hebrew the patriarch of the English language


edit on 25-12-2011 by lonewolf19792000 because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:13 AM
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reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 


Perhaps it supports the story that we were all one language and that God really did change our language in an effort to get us to disperse and populate the planet like he admonished Adam and Eve to do in the first place ?



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:14 AM
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Well English is mostly Germanic, with a touch of older french, therefore German would be closer than English to Paleo-Hebrew if this were the case.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:31 AM
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Originally posted by Drezden
Well English is mostly Germanic, with a touch of older french, therefore German would be closer than English to Paleo-Hebrew if this were the case.


Did you go to the site i linked. All you have to do is look at the alphabetical evidence. English is the language of the Anglo-Saxon, they spoke "anglish". The anglos were nordic folk, possibly a people from the norse (viking) peoples decided they didn't care for water raids anymore and wanted to settle down and picked Brittonia (modern day England).

The interesting think is that viking runes look surprisingly hebrew in nature.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:34 AM
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No, english is not a Semitic language, but an Indo-european one, with significant differences in the way the language is constructed across both groups.

English in it's current form is a mix of Anglo-Saxon, Latin and French, with smatterings of words from other languages we picked up along the way.

I would also question the validity of the source, given it self-describes itself as "the best Sacred Name and End Time site", meaning they have an obvious religious agenda behind this.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:46 AM
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reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 

Looks like a linguistic (or pseudo-linguistic) attempt at British Israelism, and it inherits many of the same problems. The linguistic/graphologic arguments are almost incoherent, and need not be considered in great detail. English is an Indo-European language, and can be traced back to the proto-Indo-Hittite of ca. 4500 BCE. This is well before the diaspora of 720 BCE that the British Israelists claim dispersed the ten lost tribes into northwestern Europe. All they really have is alphabetic similarities, and those exist because Latin and paleo-Hebrew inherited their alphabets from a common source--the Phoenecian alphabet.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 09:52 AM
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Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Did you go to the site i linked. All you have to do is look at the alphabetical evidence. English is the language of the Anglo-Saxon, they spoke "anglish".


English in it's current form is only loosely based upon Anglo-Saxon with significant French and Latin input.


Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
The anglos were nordic folk,


No, they were Germanic. The Germanic tribes came from continental Europe during the migration period. The Saxons, Angles and Jutes were all documented by Tacitus in the 1st Century AD as residing in the Germanic regions which bare their name today, namely Jutland, Saxony and Angeln. They are not a semitic or nordic people.


Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
possibly a people from the norse (viking) peoples decided they didn't care for water raids anymore and wanted to settle down and picked Brittonia (modern day England).


Jeebus, you need to brush on history matey. The Germanic and Viking people were not the same, as we now know through genetic study. Vikings did not arrive in England until around the 8th Century, well after the Anglo-Saxon migration and only settled in the North East for the most part. Again, genetic studies of the people in this area show a high propensity for Haplogroup I1, which is also found amongst Scandanavian people today.


Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
The interesting think is that viking runes look surprisingly hebrew in nature.


No, they don't, not even close. The English alphabet is the Latin one. Again, you would know this with basic research. It's also a dead give away it is Latin because other area's also colonised by the Romans also use the same alphabet.
edit on 25/12/11 by stumason because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 11:07 AM
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Anglo-Saxon may come from Hebrew, but English is MOSTLY French.

I think Anglo-Saxon counts for 15% of English.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 11:23 AM
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Originally posted by NowanKenubi
Anglo-Saxon may come from Hebrew, but English is MOSTLY French.

I think Anglo-Saxon counts for 15% of English.


Anglo-Saxon is in no way, whatsover, in any shape or form, connected to Hebrew.

And you will find that there are a considerable amount of Anglo-Saxon words in English, far more than 15%. What you will find is that common words will tend to have an Anglo-Saxon origin, as even after 1066 the common man remained the samem, but words used to describe functions of state, for example, will have Norman/Latin influences which is a direct result of the Norman conquest in 1066 and the related transfer of power from Anglo-Saxon elites to the new Norman elite..

It is obviously far more complex than that, but I can categorically say that English or it's precedding source languages are not Semitic so are therefore not Hebrew.

To me, this seems like an attempt to paint some form of Jewish supremacy and culture theft.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 11:30 AM
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Good grief. If there's one thing I dislike more than pseudo-science, it's pseudo-philology. I honestly think that the authors of that website do not speak a single word of actual Hebrew. Hebrew is a highly inflected language that modifies short two to four consonant roots with prefixes and suffixes. English is filled with irregular verbs and uses word order to convey object relationships. It's like arguing that English is derived from Japanese because the Japanese word for "TV" is "teereebee!"
edit on 25-12-2011 by DJW001 because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 03:48 PM
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Link


The link to the ancient Irish etc, is because of the migration of Spanish peoples to Ireland. They being the Gaels. There is a genetic link to the Iberian people. This is admitted by historians.

The underlying link to the Paleo-Hebrew, in Indo-European dialects, is because of the the mass influx of people into Europe, thousands of years ago. Also, the Phoenicians settled in Iberia/Southern Europe. They were a maritime people, that had colonised places in the med. Malta, Cyprus, Carthage etc etc. Their trading routes spread to Britain.

Phonecian migration


Wiki: look under Genetics and trade


The History of writing:

Latin based languages in Europe come from the Etruscan, which comes from the Greek alphabet. This was taken from the Phoenician.

Link


English tho, did not come from it directly, obviously. The only relation is in the alphabet we use. The original Welsh(which came from British/Brythonic) and ancient Irish tho, there is definitely a link.

edit on 25-12-2011 by TheUnusualSuspect because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:36 PM
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Originally posted by stumason
No, english is not a Semitic language, but an Indo-european one, with significant differences in the way the language is constructed across both groups.

English in it's current form is a mix of Anglo-Saxon, Latin and French, with smatterings of words from other languages we picked up along the way.

I would also question the validity of the source, given it self-describes itself as "the best Sacred Name and End Time site", meaning they have an obvious religious agenda behind this.


+1 to this.
The question it leads to, though, is... "what's the agenda?". Why is it important to someone that English has ties to a proto-semitic language?




edit: answer found.

"The Jews are not the only Israelites".


it is illogical to assume that the northern 10 tribes were destroyed or disappeared, while the much smaller nation of IEUDE survived three different captivities and mass exterminations to establish a Jewish state 60 years ago.

The lost tribes of ISHaRaAL settled in the West. Europeans and Mediterraneans are the main descendants of the Northern House that was exiled to Assyria in ca 722 BC.


...clearly this is one of those very special kinds of Christians who thinks that the Bible doesn't actually mean what it says, it means something entirely different. [insert my own Christian grumpy hat here - and no, you can't have one, we're an exclusive club]
edit on 25-12-2011 by Awen24 because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:46 PM
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That Web site linked in the OP is full of junk science.

English is derived from Olde German spoken by the Angles, Saxons, and Jutes who invaded in the 5th c. AD. The Angles came from Englaland and spoke a language already called Englisc. It is an Indo-european language, not even remotely Semitic.


(Image source)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:52 PM
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Originally posted by Blackmarketeer

(Image source)


interesting graphic, where does German tie in (i dont see it among any of the other languages attributed to influencing modern english)?



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:53 PM
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Originally posted by Awen24

Originally posted by stumason
No, english is not a Semitic language, but an Indo-european one, with significant differences in the way the language is constructed across both groups.

English in it's current form is a mix of Anglo-Saxon, Latin and French, with smatterings of words from other languages we picked up along the way.

I would also question the validity of the source, given it self-describes itself as "the best Sacred Name and End Time site", meaning they have an obvious religious agenda behind this.


+1 to this.
The question it leads to, though, is... "what's the agenda?". Why is it important to someone that English has ties to a proto-semitic language?




We have to remember that the El-ite, such as the British royal family, have blood ties back through Germany, France and Roman Cesar's - as well as Israel(according to their genealogy claims)

The Queen had Egyptian/Israeli symbols at her coronation. Symbolic dove, linked to Semiramis of Assyria, as well as the fertility goddess Ishtar. Knights of Malta cross, as well as the stone of Jacob. That not being "fact" but is symbolic to these people.

They have a agenda to push. And that is the one world government, obviously.

look at the "British Israelism" links. Lots of it is wrong/circumstantial, but it's been backed by even the royals themselves. They want the link to be real. I don't know how much of it is real, but I can produce a good theory.

With the British Israelists, they want us to believe in the strong, biblical, ties of America to Britain, then back to Rome and "Greater Israel". It's zionist, NWO agenda, basically.
In short, I believe they want to have a big war in the ME, where Israel may get destroyed, then "New Jerusalem" will become the centre of world government...London! Remember William Blakes poem about Jerusalem in Englands green and pleasant land?!
edit on 25-12-2011 by TheUnusualSuspect because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:55 PM
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Originally posted by ignant

Originally posted by Blackmarketeer

(Image source)


interesting graphic, where does German tie in (i dont see it among any of the other languages attributed to influencing modern english)?



When people say German they should say Germanic instead.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 04:56 PM
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i'm more interested in why the english alphabet now only has 25 letters.
but i agree with the above posters, its well known that the english language is just a mish mash of all the other european languages.



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 05:57 PM
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Originally posted by lacrimosa
i'm more interested in why the english alphabet now only has 25 letters.

When did this happen? It still had 26 when I learned my ABCs. What letter was dropped?



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 07:03 PM
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reply to post by lonewolf19792000
 




you really need to stop hanging around with the zionazi crowd
now look at what you've done:shk:

the relationship between hebrews and greeks is
probably a misremembered mention of certain
lacedemonians of hebrew descent mentioned in maccabees

i'll spare you the english/linguistics/history as stumason, furvus and others have already given you one
i will instead give you the same advice rabbi akiba gave the proselyte:



...go and study.


you are running the risk of being confused with a member who spouts off,
yet shows he doesn't know the gaon of vilna from bar kohkba
edit on 25-12-2011 by DerepentLEstranger because: (no reason given)



posted on Dec, 25 2011 @ 08:27 PM
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I think many answering this thread have fallen into the trap that the NWO and Sionists have set for people who don't read the Bible. (I mean S not Z, as they are the pretenders.)

There used to be a Youtube vid (still is apparently) where this bloke had found 60 prophecies that show the English are from the Tribe of Ephraim (son of Joseph), making us Ephraimites. Including the fact that we are known for our binge drinking, LOL.
(In fact Brit-ish in Hebrew means 'Man of Covenant' or literally 'Covenant man'.)

So before you throw the baby out with the bath water, read the Old Testament before you say we are not one of the 10 lost tribes.



www.youtube.com...

If you do not believe England and other countries are part of the 10 lost tribes, you can not unlock a major part of what Revelation is saying.

Jesus said -the night BEFORE He died- that His job had been completed!!!! Therefore dying wasn't His job, so what was it?
The only thing I can think of was that He came for a Bride and the Bride is made up of the Church but many Old Testament prophets were promised that Israel would be the Bride.
So using logic; Israel is the Bride. All 12 Tribes of Israel reunited as the Bride of Christ. SO Jesus came for the 10 lost tribes (who were not lost in Jesus' time) and the other 2 tribes still in Israel.)


BTW the Zionist/Sionist movement are making the prophecies in Revelation happen because they think they can win, if they can be two steps ahead. (Like Hitler's henchmen thought.)
But the all knowing God wrote down what they were going to do, which they are now following to see if they can win in the End.

The main reason we have been given Revelation, (and why they tried so hard to take it away in the Inquisitions) is so that we can side step their traps and snares. It was never meant to be used as a means to try and win against God (Even though He knew they would use it that way.)

And BTW Hebrew, Runes, Latin and English are all languages that can be used to invoke the Key of Solomon, via the Shield of David. They are linked but not how man has linked them.

Peace




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