Originally posted by Watcher-In-The-Shadows
1) More "begging the question" fallacy.
2) Light gets dimmer as it travels.
You seem to be the OP's (irrational) bulldog...
I am not discussing a "begging the question" fallacy. I believe that you need to study your logic, sir...
I am discussing causality. We, as humans, know for a fact that if there are an infinite sources of light in an infinite area, then with infinite time,
every where you look will end in light. It is very simple.
It's as if you are saying to me that I am begging the question of a potato to be boiled by placing it in boiling water!
You, my friend... ARE ABSURD!
As Edgar Allen Poe has said on the subject:
Were the succession of stars endless, then the background of the sky would present us a uniform luminosity, like that displayed by the Galaxy –since
there could be absolutely no point, in all that background, at which would not exist a star. The only mode, therefore, in which, under such a state of
affairs, we could comprehend the voids which our telescopes find in innumerable directions, would be by supposing the distance of the invisible
background so immense that no ray from it has yet been able to reach us at all.
... and of course, he illustrates a universe so large (perhaps infinite in size) which can't possibly be infinite in time. This is compatible with
the big bang theory due to the expansionary period and the speed of light.
You say light gets dimmer as it travels. That is of no concern to an infinite universe with infinite stars and infinite time because the photons are
spreading out over an infinite area infinitely. In an infinite universe, every single photon from every single star has reached, and its successors
are continuing to reach, every single point in the universe until one star in the line of site has died.. but even then there are infinite stars in
that line of sight.