Protestant disinfo debunked-Catholics are also Christians

reply to post by truejew


I have no idea what you quoted, here is from the Brenton LXX to English translation:

" Brenton Greek Septuagint (LXX)

"For thus saith the Lord; They shall yet speak this word in the land of Judah, and in the cities thereof, when I shall turn his captivity; blessed be the Lord on his righteous holy mountain!"

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

It's odd that you're attempting to claim that Jesus was unable to read Hebrew.

No one is able to read "Hebrew". It does not exist. There is Aramaic and Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian.

Maybe in crazy Reckart-land, where facts are ignored in favour of opinion, Hebrew doesn't exist, but among actual trained historical linguists, it does.

It is probable that He, coming from a Jewish family, could read Aramaic, however the evidence points to Him speaking Greek.

No. There is absolutely no evidence pointing to Jesus being a Greek speaker. The reason that the New Testament is in Greek is that it was directed at both a Jewish and Gentile audience, and thus was written in a language that could be understood by elements in both groups.

Christianity is a Jewish sect, it is not a Greek religion.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

I have no idea what you quoted, here is from the Brenton LXX to English translation:

" Brenton Greek Septuagint (LXX)

"For thus saith the Lord; They shall yet speak this word in the land of Judah, and in the cities thereof, when I shall turn his captivity; blessed be the Lord on his righteous holy mountain!"

Brenton translation of Jeremieh 31:20-25 says the following:

20 Moab is put to shame, because he is broken: howl and cry; proclaim in Arnon, that Moab has perished. 21 And judgment is coming against the land of Misor, upon Chelon, and Rephas, and Mophas, 22 and upon Daebon, and upon Nabau, and upon the house of Daethlathaim, 23 and upon Cariathaim, and upon the house of Gaemol, and upon the house of Maon, 24 and upon Carioth, and upon Bosor, and upon all the cities of Moab, far and near. 25 The horn of Moab is broken, and his arm is crushed.

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

I have no idea what you quoted, here is from the Brenton LXX to English translation:

" Brenton Greek Septuagint (LXX)

"For thus saith the Lord; They shall yet speak this word in the land of Judah, and in the cities thereof, when I shall turn his captivity; blessed be the Lord on his righteous holy mountain!"

I see where the difference is. It is actually Jeremias 38:23 in the Septuagint. You are taking the verse out of context. "Word" refers to the prophecy given, not a language.

reply to post by truejew


No, the Greek word used means "speech/dialect". Do you know the difference between "Logos" and "Rhema"?

And you weren't quoting Jeremiah 31. Jeremiah 30-31 deals with the future regathering of Israel/Judah from the nations they would be scattered to after the diaspora.

Sorry I'm late to the party
Just got the heads up on this thread

A brief summary would be appreciated I don't have time to read 90 + pages

So where are we

*rolls up sleeves*

Cody

Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

It's odd that you're attempting to claim that Jesus was unable to read Hebrew.

No one is able to read "Hebrew". It does not exist. There is Aramaic and Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian.

Maybe in crazy Reckart-land, where facts are ignored in favour of opinion, Hebrew doesn't exist, but among actual trained historical linguists, it does.

It is probable that He, coming from a Jewish family, could read Aramaic, however the evidence points to Him speaking Greek.

No. There is absolutely no evidence pointing to Jesus being a Greek speaker. The reason that the New Testament is in Greek is that it was directed at both a Jewish and Gentile audience, and thus was written in a language that could be understood by elements in both groups.

Christianity is a Jewish sect, it is not a Greek religion.

Almost the entire Old Testament was written in Hebrew during the thousand years of its composition. But a few chapters in the prophecies of Ezra and Daniel and one verse in Jeremiah were written in a language called Aramaic. This language became very popular in the ancient world and actually displaced many other languages. Aramaic even became the common language spoken in Israel in Jesus' time, and it was likely the language He spoke day by day. Some Aramaic words were even used by the Gospel writers in the New Testament. The New Testament, however, was written in Greek. This seems strange, since you might think it would be either Hebrew or Aramaic. However, Greek was the language of scholarship during the years of the composition of the New Testament from 50 to 100 AD.

There you go

Source

Cody

Originally posted by cody599
Sorry I'm late to the party
Just got the heads up on this thread

A brief summary would be appreciated I don't have time to read 90 + pages

So where are we

*rolls up sleeves*

Cody

Just go back a page or two. Someone is trying to say there is no such language as Hebrew.

reply to post by NOTurTypical


Thanks

I'll be back in a few

Dinner time

Ha zman agier leocel

Phonetic Hebrew time to eat

Cody

Ok who thinks Hebrew doesn't exist ?

If so how the hell do I speak to my kids ?

Fess up

Cody

Originally posted by cody599
Ok who thinks Hebrew doesn't exist ?

If so how the hell do I speak to my kids ?

Fess up

Cody

Here:

There is no "Hebrew" language, only Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic. Yeshua is Aramaic.

From THIS post on the previous page.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by adjensen

 

And Yeshua is Hebrew, not Aramaic.

There is no "Hebrew" language, only Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian and Aramaic. Yeshua is Aramaic.

Thanks Notur

truejew you should read this for a simple start

Hebrew names for God

Cody

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

No, the Greek word used means "speech/dialect". Do you know the difference between "Logos" and "Rhema"?

And you weren't quoting Jeremiah 31. Jeremiah 30-31 deals with the future regathering of Israel/Judah from the nations they would be scattered to after the diaspora.

edit on 29-7-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)

Yes, I quoted Jeremias 31:20-25 from the Septuagint. It is actually Jeremias 38:23 in the Septuagint that you wanted. You are taking the verse out of context. It says nothing about a lost language being found again.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

No, the Greek word used means "speech/dialect". Do you know the difference between "Logos" and "Rhema"?

And you weren't quoting Jeremiah 31. Jeremiah 30-31 deals with the future regathering of Israel/Judah from the nations they would be scattered to after the diaspora.

edit on 29-7-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)

Yes, I quoted Jeremias 31:20-25 from the Septuagint. It is actually Jeremias 38:23 in the Septuagint that you wanted. You are taking the verse out of context. It says nothing about a lost language being found again.

edit on 29-7-2013 by truejew because: (no reason given)

TJ,

Really, by whose authority do you speak to interpret Scripture correctly? You constantlyt disagree with the Church, her teachings and they come from the Apostles. Remember, Jesus said those who hear you, hear Me.

So actually saying "the teachings of the Church" better to say "the teachings of Christ." Jesus assured the
world, evil will never overcome the Church. Trust her and not men with no authority.

reply to post by colbe


reply to post by adjensen


reply to post by NOTurTypical


reply to post by cody599


Good luck trying to make sense with this one, guys. The last time I ran into truejew on a thread, he fought all logic and Scripture like it was going out of style and then told me he could "rebuke" me and anything I said but I had no "authority" to do the same to him since I'm just a girl.

If I were y'all, I'd start "rebuking" him and saving my breath because it'll be wasted in an argument with him...it's like trying to have a reasoned conversation with a brick wall.

"Hebrew's not a language"...seriously, where does one come up with this kind of stuff?!

Originally posted by jcutler12888
"Hebrew's not a language"...seriously, where does one come up with this kind of stuff?!

One moves to "Crazy Reckartland", a theological counterpart to Fantasyland in Disneyworld, lol.

I agree, though -- arguing with an indoctrinated cultist is like arguing with a brick wall... probably why I have a bloody forehead, but as God won't give up on him, neither will I.

Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by jcutler12888
"Hebrew's not a language"...seriously, where does one come up with this kind of stuff?!

One moves to "Crazy Reckartland", a theological counterpart to Fantasyland in Disneyworld, lol.

I agree, though -- arguing with an indoctrinated cultist is like arguing with a brick wall... probably why I have a bloody forehead, but as God won't give up on him, neither will I.

Well, let me mark Crazy Reckartland off of my places to visit in the future...

...done! LOL

Your perseverance is admirable, my friend.

Well, after 93 pages, "brick wall" seems like an appropriate term. And women aren't supposed to teach their own husbands, but if you're not married to TJ you can.. try. Remember, you can always explain something to someone else, however it's impossible to understand anything for another person.

Originally posted by colbe

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew

 

No, the Greek word used means "speech/dialect". Do you know the difference between "Logos" and "Rhema"?

And you weren't quoting Jeremiah 31. Jeremiah 30-31 deals with the future regathering of Israel/Judah from the nations they would be scattered to after the diaspora.

edit on 29-7-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)

Yes, I quoted Jeremias 31:20-25 from the Septuagint. It is actually Jeremias 38:23 in the Septuagint that you wanted. You are taking the verse out of context. It says nothing about a lost language being found again.

edit on 29-7-2013 by truejew because: (no reason given)

TJ,

Really, by whose authority do you speak to interpret Scripture correctly? You constantlyt disagree with the Church, her teachings and they come from the Apostles. Remember, Jesus said those who hear you, hear Me.

So actually saying "the teachings of the Church" better to say "the teachings of Christ." Jesus assured the
world, evil will never overcome the Church. Trust her and not men with no authority.

Read the rest of the Chapter. There is nothing about a lost language being found. What it speaks of is the prophecy that was being spoken of in the previous Scriptures.

A person filled with the Holy Spirit does have authority to interpret Scripture. A pope is not a higher authority than God.

Originally posted by cody599
Ok who thinks Hebrew doesn't exist ?

If so how the hell do I speak to my kids ?

Fess up

Cody

Modern day "Hebrew" is an attempt to speak Paleo-Hebrew/Phoenecian. The problem is no one really knows how to speak Paleo-Hebrew which is actually Phoenecian, not "Hebrew".

Aramaic is also not "Hebrew".