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Originally posted by captainnotsoobvious
reply to post by OldCurmudgeon
The point of this whole video was people trying to engage in voter fraud, deliberately. Not foreign nationals using the fake IDs they use for work to register to vote. Thus the whole, "dead people voting" malarkey.
I have no problem, if the cost of IDs is reduced to zero, having to provide state IDs to vote. None at all.
But, if you think about it for just two seconds, the only legal American voters a ID law would disenfranchise are really poor people. This would essentially remove the poorest of the poor from he voter rolls. That would be the outcome.
I also find is very ... cynical... of all the right wingers yammering on about voter ID laws when none of them raise any alarm over all the right wing robocalls and other dirty tricks that are also being used to rig elections. There's right-wing political operatives sitting in jail for these sorts of dirty tricks and none of you care... however, propose a law which would disenfranchise the poor and everyone jobs on board... it's very cynical... and pretty disgusting.
Originally posted by Hugues de Payens
I have a question for the union members on the board, or those knowledgable of union matters.
I live/work in an open shop state. Meaning a union eligible employee is not compelled to join the union which represents the work force. They are, however covered by the same union agreement as the dues paying union members. The local where I work held its general election for its officers this week, and as I drove past the union hall, and saw all of the folks in line to vote, I wondered if the election was open to all union eligible employees or if it was just for the dues paying members. So, the question is......(This question is not off topic. There is a point)
Does one have to provide proof of dues paying membership to a union local to vote for that local's officers when its elections are held?