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Originally posted by thedoctorswife
I have no answer to your question, also im pondering something someone else said on this site earlier, how did Noah get two of each animal to go onto the ark? How did he get a polar bear? sorry, two polar bears?
In the bible god apparently flooded the entire earth to drown everyone and eliminate corruption and sin.
Why did he drown the entire world in the first place when he could have just sent down Jesus?
Was this brutal slaughter of mankind necessary? And why doesn’t he use the same method on us?
reply to post by IgnorantSpecies
But it begs the question why did he have to kill everyone when he is god?
If he is what the bible claims then why couldn't he just wish for the fallen angels to be gone and that be that?
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by IgnorantSpecies
God was not cleansing the earth of fallen angels. People like applying apocryphal literature to Scripture, but all Scripture actually says is that, in addition to the abundance of wicked men, there were also "giants" on the earth in the days of Noah. But, note, it then adds that they were also on the earth after. The flood was certainly not to cleanse the earth of fallen angels. The flood was to typify the cleansing of sin that would be accomplished by the blood of Christ.
And how did all the species of the earth come to be in walking distance of the ark? Short answer: There was no ark, of course. (I know you're not serious, but...) another problem with taking the Bible literally.
Originally posted by IgnorantSpecies
I don't mean to offend, but I am sure some of you will be offended..
In the bible god apparently flooded the entire earth to drown everyone and eliminate corruption and sin.
But later rather than drown the entire world again he sends down Jesus to absorb the world of sin.
Why did he drown the entire world in the first place when he could have just sent down Jesus?
Was this brutal slaughter of mankind necessary? And why doesn’t he use the same method on us?
Does this prove that the god of the bible is not all knowing and clearly makes mistakes? Because if he was all knowing he would have known that drowning the entire world was not effective.
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by troubleshooter
That is not in Scripture. Nothing bad is said of the Nephilim ("giants") in Genesis 6. And, obviously, the flood was not sent to destroy them because they continued to exist after the flood. The flood was sent to cleanse the earth of wicked men.
Originally posted by IgnorantSpecies
I don't mean to offend, but I am sure some of you will be offended..
In the bible god apparently flooded the entire earth to drown everyone and eliminate corruption and sin.
But later rather than drown the entire world again he sends down Jesus to absorb the world of sin.
Why did he drown the entire world in the first place when he could have just sent down Jesus?
Was this brutal slaughter of mankind necessary? And why doesn’t he use the same method on us?
Does this prove that the god of the bible is not all knowing and clearly makes mistakes? Because if he was all knowing he would have known that drowning the entire world was not effective.
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by troubleshooter
Would you mind giving me the verse for that?edit on 2-4-2012 by CLPrime because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by IgnorantSpecies
In the bible god apparently flooded the entire earth to drown everyone and eliminate corruption and sin.
But later rather than drown the entire world again he sends down Jesus to absorb the world of sin.
Why did he drown the entire world in the first place when he could have just sent down Jesus?