Originally posted by jmdewey60
The English Revised Version is part and parcel with the milieu from which the Westcott & Hort Version came from. It came out around that same time in
the 1880’s and was mysteriously practically identical. It is a somewhat sorted history behind this effort to produce a new version of the Greek New
Testament.
ok fine, but my point stands. this passage is not exclusive to westcott and hort. other transcripts (especially coptic) render the passage with
¨he¨
besides that is the other thing that people just dont get. the wescott and hort used were the oldest transcipts they could find.
demonize them, call them satan worshipers and paganist all you want, they still used older transcipts, not the later ¨majority texts¨
attacking the personal character of them doesnt change where they got the information from.
one has to ask the question, how much of the bible has been manipulated to conform to beliefs. you blame the JW´s for this and yet you (critics in
general) ignore the gross alterations in ¨popular¨ more ¨established¨ translations.
you want to bring up fraud? look up 1 john 5:7. see how many bibles have been changed to support a pagan belief. we dont have a simple change of a
word here or there, they added nearly an entire verse to support something they wanted to believe in. and of course they had to, how else do you
explain a foundational belief of the church when its not even mentioned in the bible?
think... if you have a scripture, and it says something that contradicts fundamentally with something that another part of the bible is clear about,
what are the possible reasons? there are only 2 i can think of.
1. the passage is a bad translation, or lost in translation.
2. the passage is not inspired by god.
1 tim 3:16, ¨God was manifest in the flesh¨
think about this now. this scripture conflicts with several
fundamental truths taught by the bible.
- noone has ever directly seen god, john 1:[18a] No man hath seen God at any time
- jesus cant be god (verse is referring to jesus) because jesus himself acknowledges their separate nature, john 14:[28c]I go unto the Father: for my
Father is greater than I (i could quote many more scriptures, but this post would reach its word limit before i was done)
so what we have here isnt a conflict with JW belief, actually its a conflict with the bible itself. trinitarians and jesus divinians fail to
acknowledge quite consistently that their beliefs disagree with most of the bible. its like picking and choosing which scriptures you want to believe
in. they use john 1:1 to say jesus is god, but lets ignore scriptures like john 14:28.
so what happenes when the bible conflicts itself? well we have 2 options. 1. translation error or misunderstood because of loss in translation, or 2.
one of the passages is uninspired by god.
well what would it look like if there was a translation error? either you would have a blazingly obvious translation error based on grammar (john 1:1
is the most obvious example), or maybe you would find a point where the transcripts change (meaning the scholar was attempting to alter the writings
so as to support a belief). 1 john 5:7 is the obvious example, because the trinity ¨proof scripture¨ simply isnt found in any transcripts before the
3 to 4th centuries.
1 tim 3:16 falls in the same category. the farther back you go, the less ¨god¨, and the more ¨he¨.
of course everyone seems to hate the JW enough and are so quick to blame them for tampering that they overlook just how much ¨standard¨ and
¨authoritative¨ bibles have already been tampered with and just how much they dont reflect the older transcripts.
bad mouth them all you want, i have yet to see any compelling evidence that the NWT is rendering passages with a doctrinal slant