It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by spamandham
Originally posted by jake1997
It said Israel would be scattered, and it said that near the end they would be gathered.
Are you sure it wasn't a self fulfilling prophecy?
Originally posted by jake1997
Magog will be nuked
Damascus will be nuked
A people living carelessly on a distant coastland will be nuked
If you can point out the passages that refer to nuclear weapons, it would be helpfull.
Originally posted by jake1997
HOw can Israel being scattered , be a self fulfilling prophecy?
Originally posted by jake1997
First
We arent talking about Daniel. The time Daniel live through...in Babylon..was prophecied by Moses in Deut i believe.
You idea says that millions of jews decided to go back to Judah to fill a prophecy.
Then
Islam decided to become a world wide terror program so it could fill the prophecy about Ishmael being against every nation and every nation against them.
AND
The muslims and jews got together to decide how they could make Jerusalem a burden on the whole world.
No.
I cannot go there.
Originally posted by healthyhitter
ive been thinking for a while that the relegion christianity is just alot a fake stuff. sometimes you may hear about someone and misinterpret it.
Neither did 'christianity!' Surely you realize the one-sidedness of your statements?
Originally posted by spamandham
There's nothing in the Bible about Islam, or terrorism, or a struggle between Judaism, Christianity, and Islam. (no surprise, Islam didn't exist at the time)
No, Edom is Islam. It's an act of complete faith to trust in what God reveals and also all manner that He blesses and curses. He means what He says--and He's made good on much of what He said, already--but no one recognizes anything that is, too busy planning what will be (as a favor to God, maybe--helping Him out by decided how prophecy will be fulfilled? :mnky
It is an act of complete speculation to assign Ishmael to Islamic nations.
32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Matthew 24:32-36(KJV)
Originally posted by queenannie38
Originally posted by spamandham
There's nothing in the Bible about Islam, or terrorism, or a struggle between Judaism, Christianity, and Islam. (no surprise, Islam didn't exist at the time)
Neither did 'christianity!' Surely you realize the one-sidedness of your statements?
Originally posted by queenannie38
No, Edom is Islam.
Originally posted by lightseeker
Note: Jesus is talking to His disciples about two seperate events, the destruction of the temple and His second coming. There's nothing in the text to indicate part of his answer was for that generation and part of it was for a future generation.
He lists the signs of his return chronologically prior to his return, and follows the entire discussion with this "this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened". Note the use of the word "all" rather than "some". There's nothing to indicate he's referring only to the destruction of the temple back at the beginning of the conversation.
Here's the sentence right before "Even so, when you see these things happening, you know that it is near, right at the door. I tell you the truth, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened." How can there be any doubt that the "these things" referred to in the second sentence is the same as the "these things" referred to in the one right preceding it?
The portion that follows answers the original question "when will they happen and what are the signs" -> "no one knows the exact hour, but I just told you the signs". The lack of specificity on when he returns does not negate the portion about "this generation shall not pass".
I fully expect you to latch onto an explanation that matches your preconceptions, regardless of its merit, and the one you picked is good enough for that purpose.
Four prophets dispute that statement:
Originally posted by spamandham
The OT had nothing to say about a future New Covenant.
Originally posted by queenannie38
Four prophets dispute that statement:
Originally posted by spamandham
The OT had nothing to say about a future New Covenant.
Originally posted by queenannie38
In regard to Edom/Esau/Ishmael--Genesis chapter 36 makes it clear both 'who' and 'where'.
'Idumea' may be a forgotten name, but the place was Palestine, and remains so to this day.
Originally posted by queenannie38
The disputes of the present time are rooted in the contention which exists between the descendants of Abraham's older son Ishmael and grandson Esau on one side, and his younger son Isaac and grandson Jacob on the other side
Originally posted by spamandham
Not exactly. The present day disputes are rooted in the break up of the Ottoman empire and the reconstitution of the nation of Israel in an area where others laid claim to it for thousands of years. The problems in the Middle East today are a modern invention. Imagine the UN deciding to turn Texas into a Nordic homeland because Eric the Red had made a claim to the land 1000 years ago. Don't you suppose that would cause some problems that otherwise would not exist?
Originally posted by queenannie38
I said 'rooted' in--which means the source is ancient--long long ago God gave the children of Israel a deed that was conditional on a covenant--which they defaulted on and in the time (centuries) between then and 1948, others made that place their home.
Originally posted by spamandham
Originally posted by queenannie38
Four prophets dispute that statement:
Originally posted by spamandham
The OT had nothing to say about a future New Covenant.
You are correct. I didn't phrase what I was trying to say well.
I was referring to the new and everlasting covenant Jesus spoke of, not a future covenant with the nation of Israel.
There's no question, in my mind--what happened in 1948 has nothing to do with prophecy--only delusion of both those in question and the world in observance. A self-fulfilling prophecy is one that is made and fulfilled by the same entity, isn't it? I don't think it applies here.
Originally posted by spamandham
The question is then whether or not that reconstitution was a prophetic fulfillment or a self fulfilling prophecy.
2000 years can not be considered "in the day" in any sense.
I read the article--many good points, until the last paragraph or two. The truth is that those prophesies were meant for all who were of God's Israel born anytime after the time of the Messiah--and the ideas of the rivers and also of the peace which would manifest within the people of Israel is concerning things which are spiritual ideas--not that I'm trying to 'spiritualize' any of it away, or even say that Israel is now a 'spiritual' nation only. On the contrary, I am of the understanding that the remnant He reserved have just as much Hebraic DNA in their genes as the children of Israel have ever had--and even though it is something one is completely unaware of, there comes a time when the DNA in that blood hears the call of the Holy One of Israel--and awakens to new life under the wing of the Living God.
But more importantly, the prophecy was aimed at a contemporary audience of Isaiah, not some distant future generation. Here's why
No, that's not the main issue at the heart of the 'hoax' question: it's about 'christianity' being a hoax, not whether or not God is a true fact.
Originally posted by RANT
Was Jesus literally the walking incarnation of God or not? (See 325AD for details).
No doubt--at that's what is so wrong about 'christianity'--the type of which our country's leaders tout as their religion: to use God as a reason to kill another human being is an outright lie and a blasphemy of His Holy Name. The old argument about the 'god of the OT vs the god of the NT' is invalid--those that use this point for their arguments on either side do not understand the deepest part of the story of the world. So suffice it to say, now that God was a man and died, we have no impunity for killing each other, whether it be in the name of 'freedom' (war) or even 'justice' (capital punishment). Both are examples of men playing god from a necessity born of their own inept creation of a god.
There's a big difference in saying I think Buddha got a lot of it right. Or Mohammad was very close to God. Or Abraham and Moses knew some stuff. And yo, our guy IS GOD. The difference is staggering, and the difference means one of only two things: Harmful, dangerous hoax or slaughter the infidels, God was here! (which is a whole other kind of danger, but "justifiable" when you've got GOD on your side).
[edit on 22-7-2005 by RANT]