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originally posted by: shooterbrody
a reply to: chr0naut
Nope
They cant do squat without probable cause
Every one here is presumed innocent bra
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Agit8dChop
a reply to: chr0naut
So what are you saying exactly..
There wasn't enough evidence of collusion, but he's guilty because the evidence wasn't found?
or
He's guilty until its proven he's innocent?
as a fellow kiwi I thought we were a little more logical than this, I'm struggling with your position here.
There was evidence of communication between Russians and members of the Trump campaign, during the Trump campaign.
It doesn't fit the definition of collusion, and Trump himself was distanced from it.
Needless to say, no one was going to get convicted of collusion because it isn't a US Federal offense.
So, evidence was found of communications between the Trump campaign staff and Russians. At that time, Trump was denying strenuously those communications, which he knew were happening.
No one got charged with collusion because it isn't a Federal crime (have I said that enough yet for it to gain traction?).
But Trump clearly lied and acted guilty, repeatedly and publicly. He didn't collude (because its BS), he wasn't charged with anything. But he did lie to everyone.
Trump also wasn't the target of the Mueller investigation, for reasons that Mueller explains in the report. Yet Trump's "witch hunt" protestations seem to indicate that he thought that they were going to get something on him.
There were no FISA warrants against Trump or his family.
There were no loud allegations even from the legal and investigative side (that was all the press). There was no legal disruption to prevent Trump from doing his day to day work as President (despite the "how could he be effective when he was being targeted in a witch hunt" BS).
originally posted by: shooterbrody
a reply to: Grambler
He is a foreigner .
He won't understsnd the concept to begin with.
His govt is all sunshine and bubbles.
They provide him with a good life.
What rights?
originally posted by: chr0naut
There was evidence of communication between Russians and members of the Trump campaign, during the Trump campaign.
It doesn't fit the definition of collusion
originally posted by: chr0naut
Trump also wasn't the target of the Mueller investigation, for reasons that Mueller explains in the report. Yet Trump's "witch hunt" protestations seem to indicate that he thought that they were going to get something on him.
There were no FISA warrants against Trump or his family.
There were no loud allegations even from the legal and investigative side (that was all the press). There was no legal disruption to prevent Trump from doing his day to day work as President (despite the "how could he be effective when he was being targeted in a witch hunt" BS).
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Grambler
a reply to: chr0naut
So you mean you have been commenting on all of these threads about the mueller report, and you are unaware that in the us legal system there is a presumption of innocence?
That is unfortunate
Cite the statute, then.
Well the Us system is based on English common law. That has the tradition of the presumption of innocence, as I would think someone as invested in the US legal system and investigation such as you would know.
Its why you must be found guilty "beyond a reasonable doubt" criminally, because you are otherwise deemed innocent.
And although this was the norm from the founding of our constitution, there have been court cases that exactly laid this out.
Coffin v. United States, 156 U.S. 432 (1895)
…
The principle that there is a presumption of innocence in favor of the accused is the undoubted law, axiomatic and elementary, and its enforcement lies at the foundation of the administration of our criminal law ... Concluding, then, that the presumption of innocence is evidence in favor of the accused, introduced by the law in his behalf, let us consider what is 'reasonable doubt.' It is, of necessity, the condition of mind produced by the proof resulting from the evidence in the cause. It is the result of the proof, not the proof itself, whereas the presumption of innocence is one of the instruments of proof, going to bring about the proof from which reasonable doubt arises; thus one is a cause, the other an effect. To say that the one is the equivalent of the other is therefore to say that legal evidence can be excluded from the jury, and that such exclusion may be cured by instructing them correctly in regard to the method by which they are required to reach their conclusion upon the proof actually before them; in other words, that the exclusion of an important element of proof can be justified by correctly instructing as to the proof admitted. The evolution of the principle of the presumption of innocence, and its resultant, the doctrine of reasonable doubt, make more apparent the correctness of these views, and indicate the necessity of enforcing the one in order that the other may continue to exist.
en.wikipedia.org...
I warned people based on the Kavanaugh debacle that the democrats and others were attacking the concept of the presumption of innocence.
So thank you for feigning ignorance to do just that and proving me right.
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Grambler
a reply to: chr0naut
So you mean you have been commenting on all of these threads about the mueller report, and you are unaware that in the us legal system there is a presumption of innocence?
That is unfortunate
Cite the statute, then.
Well the Us system is based on English common law. That has the tradition of the presumption of innocence, as I would think someone as invested in the US legal system and investigation such as you would know.
Its why you must be found guilty "beyond a reasonable doubt" criminally, because you are otherwise deemed innocent.
And although this was the norm from the founding of our constitution, there have been court cases that exactly laid this out.
Coffin v. United States, 156 U.S. 432 (1895)
…
The principle that there is a presumption of innocence in favor of the accused is the undoubted law, axiomatic and elementary, and its enforcement lies at the foundation of the administration of our criminal law ... Concluding, then, that the presumption of innocence is evidence in favor of the accused, introduced by the law in his behalf, let us consider what is 'reasonable doubt.' It is, of necessity, the condition of mind produced by the proof resulting from the evidence in the cause. It is the result of the proof, not the proof itself, whereas the presumption of innocence is one of the instruments of proof, going to bring about the proof from which reasonable doubt arises; thus one is a cause, the other an effect. To say that the one is the equivalent of the other is therefore to say that legal evidence can be excluded from the jury, and that such exclusion may be cured by instructing them correctly in regard to the method by which they are required to reach their conclusion upon the proof actually before them; in other words, that the exclusion of an important element of proof can be justified by correctly instructing as to the proof admitted. The evolution of the principle of the presumption of innocence, and its resultant, the doctrine of reasonable doubt, make more apparent the correctness of these views, and indicate the necessity of enforcing the one in order that the other may continue to exist.
en.wikipedia.org...
I warned people based on the Kavanaugh debacle that the democrats and others were attacking the concept of the presumption of innocence.
So thank you for feigning ignorance to do just that and proving me right.
Nah, I was just pointing out to several posters that the US isn't the only country where the presumption of innocence is basic to jurisprudence.
Some of them in their Constitutions and foundational documents, like our NZ Bill of Rights.
He is either ignorant of the presumption of innocence standard, or intentionally misleading.
originally posted by: RadioRobert
originally posted by: shooterbrody
a reply to: chr0naut
The presumption of innocence is a function of jurisprudence. It isn't universal.
In our nation it is, why is that so hard for you to understand?
You should research probable cause.
It's always fun to see a foreigner try to explain our legal system to others.
There are all sorts of legal thresholds to cross for criminality: "Reasonable suspicion" , "probable cause", "preponderance of evidence" , and "beyond reasonable doubt". The government is held by "semper necessitas probandi incumbit ei qui agit", and needs to demonstrate a corresponding standard of evidence for any non-consensual action against a citizen. Mueller spent two years and couldn't cross beyond "Reasonable suspicion" on obstruction. Even a symbolic indictment (or statement they had enough to indict, but could not because of the OLC guidelines)would only require a "preponderance of evidence".
A person suspected of a crime never needs to actively defend himself unless he wishes to stop action for which the state has already established it's burden. No one needs to exonerate himself or have investigators exonerate him in this country. That's not what investigators do here. There is no burden on the citizen unless the state meets it's threshold.
It doesn't mean Trump never committed a crime, but in the eyes of the law, he enjoys the presumption of innocence until the state meets its legal threshold. Still a long, long way from "this report does not conclude the President committed a crime" to "beyond a reasonable doubt" after two years of investigation.
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Agit8dChop
a reply to: chr0naut
There was evidence of communication between Russians and members of the Trump campaign, during the Trump campaign.
It doesn't fit the definition of collusion, and Trump himself was distanced from it.
So? There is evidence almost all politicians have talked with people from foreign countries, even those without good relationships with the US.
What does this prove?
That's not what the dems, their media allies, and many posters on this board said. They told us the allegations in the dossier were real, and trump and his family members would go down for colluding with Russia. When they were proven wrong, they tried to change the definition and goal posts.
Needless to say, no one was going to get convicted of collusion because it isn't a US Federal offense.
So, evidence was found of communications between the Trump campaign staff and Russians. At that time, Trump was denying strenuously those communications, which he knew were happening.
Much of those there is no proof trump had knowledge.
meanwhile dems were colluding by paying a foreign agent to work with kremlin agents to get fake dirt on trump, and lying for over a year about paying for it. Yet no investigation into them for some reason.
No one got charged with collusion because it isn't a Federal crime (have I said that enough yet for it to gain traction?).
But Trump clearly lied and acted guilty, repeatedly and publicly. He didn't collude (because its BS), he wasn't charged with anything. But he did lie to everyone.
Lying bad. the dems did it too. SO did the investigators such as Comey. So did intel heads such as brennan and clapper. So did the media.
Trump also wasn't the target of the Mueller investigation, for reasons that Mueller explains in the report. Yet Trump's "witch hunt" protestations seem to indicate that he thought that they were going to get something on him.
Garbage. Even the judge in the Manafort case acknowledged the whole investigation was about trying to get people to flip on trump. This was a witch hunt, and it will be investigated as the OP shows.
There were no FISA warrants against Trump or his family.
There was at least one we know of that granted access to communications within his campaign. I know as a trump hater you don't care if the intel community under Obama was used to spy on his rival; people concerned about fair elections should be very concerned though.
There were no loud allegations even from the legal and investigative side (that was all the press). There was no legal disruption to prevent Trump from doing his day to day work as President (despite the "how could he be effective when he was being targeted in a witch hunt" BS).
Absurd. The investigation and the media around it certainly affected Trumps ability to have his agenda passed.
But hey, as someone who doesn't believe there is a presumption of innocence in the US, I am not surprised you would think that Obamas admin spying on trumps campaign, and leaking to the press, and then the press spreading lies to hurt trump for two years is no big deal.
originally posted by: Agit8dChop
originally posted by: chr0naut
There was evidence of communication between Russians and members of the Trump campaign, during the Trump campaign.
It doesn't fit the definition of collusion
Obviously, he's an international hotel mogul, he never hid this - he did deals with countries all over the world.
No matter how much you want it to be collusion... it isn't - by your own admission!
I still don't understand what you are going on about - I get the feeling you are just being difficult for a laugh - sad
originally posted by: chr0naut
Investigations are supposed to conclude whether there is a crime, or whether there isn't.
Fixed it for ya.
originally posted by: shooterbrody
a reply to: chr0naut
Nice
Just straight up lies.
Sorta like the trump 2014 court case...right?
Nothing further needed from you.
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: Sillyolme
And when he tells you that it was the behavior of George Papadopolous in a London bar just like the investigation showed will any of you believe it or will you be waiting for the next investigation to start?
How’s that dossier you told us all was true looking?
Full content here: theconservativetreehouse.com... sa-submission/
So, the question is: Why is the FBI so damned committed to this Steele Dossier?
That answer is simple. In October 2016, they needed the dossier to get the FISA warrant. They needed the 2016 FISA warrant to cover-up for all of the unauthorized and illegal surveillance activity that was already underway throughout 2016.
The FBI, and later the Mueller team, were/are strongly committed to, and defending, the formation of the Steele Dossier and its dubious content. Once they had the dossier in hand the FBI proceeded forward for an ex post facto FISA warrant.
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Grambler
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: Grambler
a reply to: chr0naut
So you mean you have been commenting on all of these threads about the mueller report, and you are unaware that in the us legal system there is a presumption of innocence?
That is unfortunate
Cite the statute, then.
Well the Us system is based on English common law. That has the tradition of the presumption of innocence, as I would think someone as invested in the US legal system and investigation such as you would know.
Its why you must be found guilty "beyond a reasonable doubt" criminally, because you are otherwise deemed innocent.
And although this was the norm from the founding of our constitution, there have been court cases that exactly laid this out.
Coffin v. United States, 156 U.S. 432 (1895)
…
The principle that there is a presumption of innocence in favor of the accused is the undoubted law, axiomatic and elementary, and its enforcement lies at the foundation of the administration of our criminal law ... Concluding, then, that the presumption of innocence is evidence in favor of the accused, introduced by the law in his behalf, let us consider what is 'reasonable doubt.' It is, of necessity, the condition of mind produced by the proof resulting from the evidence in the cause. It is the result of the proof, not the proof itself, whereas the presumption of innocence is one of the instruments of proof, going to bring about the proof from which reasonable doubt arises; thus one is a cause, the other an effect. To say that the one is the equivalent of the other is therefore to say that legal evidence can be excluded from the jury, and that such exclusion may be cured by instructing them correctly in regard to the method by which they are required to reach their conclusion upon the proof actually before them; in other words, that the exclusion of an important element of proof can be justified by correctly instructing as to the proof admitted. The evolution of the principle of the presumption of innocence, and its resultant, the doctrine of reasonable doubt, make more apparent the correctness of these views, and indicate the necessity of enforcing the one in order that the other may continue to exist.
en.wikipedia.org...
I warned people based on the Kavanaugh debacle that the democrats and others were attacking the concept of the presumption of innocence.
So thank you for feigning ignorance to do just that and proving me right.
Nah, I was just pointing out to several posters that the US isn't the only country where the presumption of innocence is basic to jurisprudence.
Some of them in their Constitutions and foundational documents, like our NZ Bill of Rights.
Nah, you were just implying presumption of innocence didn't apply in the US.
I proved you wrong and you changed the goal posts, just like with the Mueller report.
originally posted by: chr0naut
'collusion' is a deflection used by Trump from the consideration of far more serious crimes, which were the ones actually being investigated.