Hebrew Meaning of "Barack", page 2

reply to post by Aesir26

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It means BLESSED

Nice try , Pal.

The Hebrew equivalent of Barack is Baruch (ברוך), which means "blessed". There is no Hebrew equivalent for Obama. Coincidently, the name Barack sounds the same as the Hebrew name Baraq (ברק), which means ligntning, but the two names are not related. Read more: wiki.answers.com...'s_name_mean_in_Hebrew#ixzz2GGtGJiAK

reply to post by skepticconwatcher

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Do your own research. Here's a start:

Wkipedia:

The Masoretic Text (MT, 𝕸, or ) is the authoritative Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible.

Fixing of the text:

The assumed emendations are of four general types:

Removal of unseemly expressions used in reference to God; e.g., the substitution of ("to bless") for ("to curse") in certain passages.
Safeguarding of the Tetragrammaton; e.g. substitution of "Elohim" for "YHVH" in some passages.
Removal of application of the names of pagan gods, e.g. the change of the name "Ishbaal" to "Ishbosheth."
Safeguarding the unity of divine worship at Jerusalem.

The original textual source of the Masoretic version, also the source used in the translation of the Septuagint, conveniently went missing around the 1st - 2nd century A.D. It is said by Rabbinical councils that it is no longer extant.

reply to post by Aesir26
Hi Aesir

Benei-yamin literally means 'Sons of the South', presumably because they were closely related to the Judaeans in the southern portion of ancient Palestine (as opposed to the 'Ephraimite Yisro'elites' in the northern Kingdom, destroyed by Assyria c. 722 BCE) - I suppose if one were facing the rising sun (east) then the 'south' would kind of be on the right hand !

reply to post by Sigismundus

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Strong's Concordance 1144:

Benjamin בִּנְיָמִן
Word Origin
from ben and yamin
Definition
"son of (the) right hand,"

reply to post by Aesir26

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Strong's Hebrew 1301:

Baraq: "flash of lightning," an Israelite leader
Original Word: בָּרָק
Part of Speech: Proper Name Masculine
Transliteration: Baraq
Phonetic Spelling: (baw-rawk')
Short Definition: Barak

"And He said to them, "I was watching Satan fall from heaven like lightning." (Luke 10:18)

"How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!" (Isa 14:12) Lucifer = Phosphoros = Eosphoros (ἑωσφόρος) = Light-bearer

To whom did you think the Beatles were referring when they sang, "Lucy in the sky with diamonds"?

"Thou hast been in Eden the garden of God; every precious stone was thy covering, the sardius, topaz, and the diamond, the beryl, the onyx, and the jasper, the sapphire, the emerald, and the carbuncle, and gold" (Ez 28:13)


Brown Driver Briggs:

Barak:

בָּרַךְ]329 verb kneel, bless, curse (Late Hebrew id.; Arabic ; Ethiopic : Aramaic בְּרֵךְ (praise), Palmyrene especially in בריך שמו לעלמא VogPalm. 74 ff. compare 94, 144) —

1 kneel down (so Arabic, Syriac, Ethiopic): וַיִּבְרַךְ עַלבִּֿרְכָּיו and he kneeled upon his knees2Chronicles 6:13; ׳נִבְרְכָה לפני י let us kneel before Yahweh Psalm 95:6.

Strong's Concordance

Barak:

A primitive root; to kneel; to curse (God or the king, as treason) -- X abundantly, X altogether, X at all, blaspheme

reply to post by Aesir26

Hi Aesir

You wrote: QUOTE

"Do your own research. Here's a start: Wikipedia: The Masoretic Text (MT, 𝕸, or ) is the authoritative Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible." UNQUOTE

I would be very careful if I were you about using Wikipedia as a source for Hebrew scriptural/ textual biblical source information - it over simplifies (for a general worldwide non specialist audience) a very complicated textual transmission situation of the Hebrew Vorlagen in antiquity - especally our more nuanced understanding of the true state of affairs following the discovery of Caves 1-11 at Qumran ('the dead sea scrolls') which show that the Hebrew scriptures were far more fluid in antquity than previously supposed prior to the Roman destruction of Palestine (c. 70 CE)

You sholuld know that the pointed (i.e. vowelled) Masoretic text of the consonantal proto Masoretic text family is a LATE text and one of many competing texts that did not match each other letter for letter : the vowells were not added before 960 CE roughly only about 1000 years ago) and the MT is based on a single MSS (the Leningrad Codex).

The fact that modern day protestants and non-sacrificial Rabinnic Judaism today has glommed onto that one single late version of the text is a result of a complex historical process that is still being untangled today (read the monographs of modern Rabinnic scholar Emmanuel Tov for a glimpse into some of the latest (and to believers, distrubing) findings

www.emanueltov.info...


The MT (masoretic text) is actually only ONE of about 5 consonantal text versions of the Hebrew Scriptures from antiquity, and did not begin to achieve supremacy until AFTER the fall of Jerusalem by the Romans (c. 70 CE) - it was thought that the Council of Javneh (i.e. Jamnia) near Caeserea c. 90 CE (20 years after the destruction of Judaea by the Roman Army) was mainly populated with Rebbes from babylonia who wanted THEIR text version to reign supreme, thereby supressing all the earlier Palestinian versions e.g. the Samaritan Pentateuch (c. 400 BCE) and the various copies of the consonantal Hebrew found locked away in time capsule caves (1-11) near Qumran as part of the Dead Sea Scroll corpus - which differ from the Masoretic text by as much as 20 percent in places (e.g. the book of Jeremiah which is 13 chapters longer in the MT with later additions); also the Greek translations of Symmachus and Theodotion and Aquilla in the 2nd century AD (c. 125 - 175 CE) show they were working from other consonantal text versions than the Masoretic, as did the two versions of the Alexandrian Greek translation known as the LXX or Septuaginta (c. 200 BCE) which also differ from the Masoretic text by as much as 15%.

If you trace the 'prophecies' of the'messiah' for example in the socalled canoncial Greek Gospel of 'Matthew' (whoever he was) e.g. 'this was performed in order to fulfill what was spoken by the prophet so and so...' you'll find that the Greek quotations in 60% of the citations from the OT in that gospel do NOT match the Masoretic text at all but follow the LXX Septuaginta text families or follow the families used by the later Aramaic Targums or follow the families of texts that support some of the Dead Sea Scroll readings - so it is clear that the earliest Christian communities (who were 'Jews' originally - although Messianiacally inclined Jews) did NOT use the Masoretic text version as their sole scriptural authority but used the various hotchpotch versions out there in the wild pre-Jamnia (after which time the non-masoretic texts were destoyed - except for those hidden away in caves like the Dead Sea Scrolls in caves 1-11 for example which escaped destruction).

Quotations from the Hebrew scriptures also in the socalled Book of Revelation (i.e. the Apocalypse of Yohanon the Levite, whoever he was) do NOT follow the Masoretic very closesly either, especially in its citiations from Daniel (which follows Theodotion's source Hebrew Consonantal Vorlag 'undertext' which are neither LXX nor Masoretic nor targum based) very exactly, but employ a curious mix of all three plus other sources.

The Roman Catholic church does not support the MT Leningrad 'rabinnic' version of the Hebrew scriptures from c. 960 CE as rabinnic Jews and protestants do today = their text family stems from the much earlier LXX Greek version (c. 200 BCE) translated into Latin by Jerome in his Vulgate version c. 420 CE.

Hope this helps...

reply to post by Sigismundus

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Yes, for the uninitiated, Wikipedia would be a good place to start.

What you have contributed, I find much more informational.

Thank you.

Originally posted by Aesir26
reply to post by kaylaluv

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My source is the Word.

The English translation of the Old Testament is inaccurate.

"Bless Yahweh" means "bow down to Yahweh".
"The blessing of Yahweh" means "the curse of Yahweh".

The Masoretes destroyed the original versions of the Hebrew bible.
Major parts were redacted; interpolations added.
Changes were made substituting the name "Elyon" for "Yahweh".
The original script was replaced with Babylonian Aramaic which was renamed, "Modern Hebrew".

edit on 27-12-2012 by Aesir26 because: (no reason given)

Uh huh....

YHWH represents the Hebrew letters "Yud-Heh-Vav-Heh." It was the name God gave for Himself when Moshe inquired of Him.... Not "Yahweh"....

reply to post by Blarneystoner

Hi Blarney

Actually the name that the clan god spewed out of the bush was 'Eheyi esher eheyi' which is virtually untranslatable into English - it may be based on the verb 'to be' eyeh' - and could potentially mean something like

'I am who I am'

all depending on how you point the consonants 'SHR with vowells (paleoHeb contains no written vowells except the letter Vav is sometimes used for long u and long o and the letter Yod used for y or i) -

Esher could mean 'who' or 'which' (I am that which I am) or if anothe vowell is used to make e.g. Asher - it could mean 'I am ASHUR I am' -

which of course would therefore refer to the 4-headed national clan-god of the Assyrians ASHUR (who is depicted as early as 1500 BCE with one face of a man, one face of an ox, one face of an eagle and one of a lion) which predates the mad prophet Hezekiel's wheel visions and 4 faced gods by 1000 years at least) - after all Assyria invaded eretz Yisro'el c. 722 BCE and ruled for 100 years before Babylon moved in to finish them off by a series of invasions in 621-587 BCE.

But YHWH is not used as the answer to 'what is your name' ? 'Eyehi esher eyehi' was the response : it could also be taken to mean something like : 'mind your own business' in the sense of : 'what is your name? I am who I am buster that's all you need to know...'

The rough pronunciation of 'Yahweh' for the tetragrammaton YHWH was taken from the Greek LXX Septuaginta when in Exodus chapter 3 it is actually written out as IAUE - probably a rough idea of the way the name was pronounced prior to the Exile into Babylon (c. 587 BCE) after which time (e.g. in the era of Ezra c. 440 BCE) the name was forbidden to be spoken outloud except by the high priest at Jerusalem on the Feast of Yom Kippur - probably because it was being used for casting spells/magical purposes by those outside of the community - cf: 'because of you my NAME is being blasphemed among the goyim !' etc.

After Ezra it was thought that EDONAI was substituted whenever YHWH appeared in the text when read aloud.
Placing the vowells of EDONAI ( E O A) into the Tetragrammaton YHWH (or JHWH) gives you j E h O w A h ...i.e. Jehovah which was never pronounced as such prior to the middle ages, and more popyularly after the time of King James and his much maligned 'English Bible' of 1611.

Luke 10:18 And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as lightning from heaven.

The Hebrew word for lightning is "Barack" and heaven or heights is "Bahma", the conjunction that unites the words is "O".

"And he said unto them, I beheld Satan as Barack O Bahma."

Scripture also mentions that the Anti-christ will be unlike kings before him (Black), will hail from the east but be seen unto the west (Kenya > America) and will have a different religion than his ancestors (Muslim > Christian).

Obama was also born on the 216th day of the year (Aug 4) 6x6x6 = 216 and supposedly on the 33rd parallel (Honolulu). The Illinois (his home state) Pick 3 Lottery numbers on November 5th 2008 the day after Obama's victory was 666.

I'm not a very religious person but wrap your mind around that.

reply to post by Aesir26

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Here is what I found regarding the United States President's names and what they mean.

"Barack is an African named meaning "blessed."

"Obama is an ancient Kenyan surname." "...to lean or bend."

"Obama's middle name Hussein is the first name of his paternal grandfather." "good or handsome one."


Link: hotword.dictionary.com...

reply to post by caladonea

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Most people are still oblivious to the fact that a large part of the Anglo-Saxon (English) language actually stems from Hebrew.

The dictionary definitons are often outright lies.

Find out what "obelisk" is in Hebrew.
When you do, ask yourself why.

Originally posted by Aesir26
reply to post by caladonea

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Most people are still oblivious to the fact that a large part of the Anglo-Saxon (English) language actually stems from Hebrew.

The dictionary definitons are often outright lies.

Find out what "obelisk" is in Hebrew.
When you do, ask yourself why.

edit on 28-12-2012 by Aesir26 because: (no reason given)

Why do you think that the conventional etymology must be wrong and it must be stemmed from Hebrew? Greek obeliskos -> Latin obeliscus -> French obélisque -> English obelisk makes enough sense for me since about half of all English words are Latinate words, often of Greek origin, that entered English either directly or through French during the Norman era. The fact that it exists in Hebrew (no, I couldn't look that up anywhere) doesn't mean it must be the correct origin...

Originally posted by kaylaluv

Originally posted by Aesir26
reply to post by kaylaluv

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No:

Strong's Concordance 1288:

barak: to kneel; curse; bless
Original Word: בָּרַך
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: barak
Phonetic Spelling: (baw-rak')


"Con le ginocchia della mente inchine"

So you deny that Baraka means blessing? Here's another source.

Baraka means blessing in Hebrew, Arabic and Arabic-influenced languages.

en.wikipedia.org...

Where are your sources? Links?

In Hebrew the word is Barucha not barak pronounced liked Ba - rook - Kuh

reply to post by diqiushiwojia

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Why are there obelisks in Vatican City (St. Peter's Basilica), Washington DC (The Washington Monument); London England....

The Synagogue of Satan is worhips the phallus. This is the cult of Shiva; Molech; YHWH.
The Old Testament has been deliberately mistranslated.

For example: Genesis 28:16: "And Jacob rose up early in the morning, and took the stone that he had put for his pillows, and set it up for a pillar, and poured oil upon the top of it."

Pillar = Hebrew "matsebah" (MASTURBATE)
Oil = Hebrew "semen" (SEMEN; SPERM)

The actual translation should read: "And Jacob's penis had an early rising and he masturbated pouring semen over (himself)."

Strong's Hebrew #4676:

MATSEBAH: a pillar, obelisk, stump, erection
Original Word: מַצֵּבָה
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: matstsebah
Phonetic Spelling: (mats-tsay-baw')
Short Definition: pillar

1. a. pillar, as monument, personal memorial 2 Samuel 18:18 (twice in verse).

b. a stone, set up (שׂים, הציב), and anointed as memorial of divine appearance Genesis 28:18,22; Genesis 31:13 (all E), Genesis 35:14 (J); so also Genesis 33:20

c. especially of sacred stones or pillars in connection with altar, erected (בנה) by Moses Exodus 24:4 (E; 12 pillars), Hosea 3:4; Hosea 10:1,2; Isaiah 19:19; conjecture also 2 Kings 12:10 for ᵑ0 מִזְבֵּחַ StaZAW v (1885), 296 NowArchaeology l.c., but dubious, see Benzon the passage; (usually + אֲשֵׁרִים etc.): of Canaanites Exodus 23:24 (E), Exodus 34:13 (J), Deuteronomy 7:5; Deuteronomy 12:3 compare הַבַּלְַ ׳מ 2 Kings 3:2; 2 Kings 10:26,27; Tyre, עֻזֵּךְ ׳מ, Ezekiel 26:11, of obelisks of Heliopolis in Egypt


Now, if we consult a modern dictionary of etymology regarding the origin of the word, "masturbate", we find a deliberate obscuring of the truth:

"1711 AD (earlier as mastupration, 1620s), from Fr. masturbation and directly from Mod.L. masturbationem (nom. masturbatio), noun of action from pp. stem of L. masturbari "to masturbate." The long-standing speculation is that this Latin word is altered (probably by influence of turbare "to stir up") from *manstuprare, from manu, ablative of manus "hand" (see manual) + stuprare "defile" (oneself), from stuprum "defilement, dishonor," related to stupere "to be stunned, stupefied" (see stupid)."

"Matzah balls", the Ashkenazic traditional meal is a tribute to testicles.

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