reply to post by Deetermined
I understand that the Hebrew people were led to believe that their just God would only condemn the wicked, and that only guilty women would suffer.
So was the water just water, and God was the one to administered the curse fairly? Or did the water contain an abortionifient?
If the water was just water, then this whole thing is just hocus pocus and superstition, and any miscarriage that the ritual caused was either
"Voodoo" type magic or psychologically induced. Is that possible? Can a woman use fear or will to expel a fetus? Enter Todd Akin........
If there was something in the water that induced a miscarriage, then certainly, any pregnant woman, whether faithful to her husband or not, would
experience "the curse."
Either way, the intent of the ritual is to expel and unwanted pregnancy, to cause an ordained abortion.
Edit to add:
I would also like to note that the penalty for an adulterous woman was death by stoning, killing both the woman and her unborn child, should she
become pregnant from the act, whether with the other man's child, or already carrying her own husband's child.
This ritual, in the book of Numbers, is designed for the man who has no proof, that would condemn his wife, and possible her child to death, other
than his suspicion and or jealousy. The woman, whether guilty or not, is assigned the blame for the man's paranoia.
edit on 12-11-2012 by
windword because: (no reason given)