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It may appear to some scientists that they are using the logical and methodological means evolved strictly within the framework of their particular speciality. But this is a profound delusion. In reality every scientist, whether he realises it or not, even in simple acts of theoretical thought, makes use of the overall results of the development of mankind's cognitive activity enshrined mainly in the philosophical categories, which we absorb as we are absorbing our own natural that no man can put together any theoretical statement language, and later, the special language of theoretical thought. Oversimplifying the question a little, one may say without such concepts as property, cause, law or accident. But these are, in fact, philosophical categories evolved by the whole history of human thought and particularly in the system of philosophical, logical culture based on the experience of all fields of knowledge and practice.
The Philosopher: But science is concerned with “common consensus” when it comes to commenting on results derived using the scientific method? After all, how many times do we hear the phrase “peer reviewed” within the scientific community? Rather often.
The Scientist: So? There is a difference between “common consensus” based on superstition and faith compared to “common consensus” based on the scientific method.
The Philosopher: How so? Don't they both rely on a third party's confirmation to validate their beliefs?
So it's fine if we let people believe whatever they want? And nobody can be proven wrong because ...... Feelings? Even dangerous behavior? Or where do you draw the line?
originally posted by: ParanoidCovKid
I think the above posters missed the point of the OP. It was about people finding common ground, despite having different beleifs and concepts its better to have common ground and have a friendly debate than drive wedges between people, its exactly what is wrong with people in this world.
Thumbs up for effort OP.
The world is full of people that drive wedges between people, the world needs more people that find common ground.
That statement is conditional. If you walk into my garage and don't see an elephant that is indeed proof of the absence of an elephant. It's not like there's anywhere it can hide. It depends on what you're looking for.
originally posted by: gosseyn
Absence of proof is not proof of absence
Argument from ignorance (from Latin: argumentum ad ignorantiam), also known as appeal to ignorance (in which ignorance represents "a lack of contrary evidence"), is a fallacy in informal logic. It asserts that a proposition is true because it has not yet been proven false (or vice versa). This represents a type of false dichotomy in that it excludes a third option, which is that: there may have been an insufficient investigation, and therefore there is insufficient information to prove the proposition be either true or false. Nor does it allow the admission that the choices may in fact not be two (true or false), but may be as many as four,
Argument from ignorance (from Latin: argumentum ad ignorantiam), also known as appeal to ignorance (in which ignorance represents "a lack of contrary evidence"), is a fallacy in informal logic. It asserts that a proposition is true because it has not yet been proven false (or vice versa). This represents a type of false dichotomy in that it excludes a third option, which is that: there may have been an insufficient investigation, and therefore there is insufficient information to prove the proposition be either true or false. Nor does it allow the admission that the choices may in fact not be two (true or false), but may be as many as four,
1.true
2.false
3.unknown between true or false
4.being unknowable (among the first three).[1]
In debates, appeals to ignorance are sometimes used in an attempt to shift the burden of proof.