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Who Wrote "Shakespeare?"

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posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 09:42 AM
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I can't believe no-one has started this thread yet! As probably everyone knows, since the 19th Century there has been a controversy over the authorship of the body of work attributed to William Shakespeare. Much of the criticism is based on the lack of documentation of the man's life, the assumption being that a literary figure of that stature would have generated more biographical interest on the part of his contemporaries. He allegedly lacked schooling: one of his friends joked that Shakespeare had "little Latin and less Greek." There is certainly no record of him attending university. He also seemed to be very familiar with courtly etiquette, law, current events, ancient history, military technology, and even contemporary scientific discoveries.

The contradictions between a figure who seemed scarcely literate (no library or books were mentioned in his will) and the literary genius whose understanding of human nature and erudition of the ways of the world led many to suspect a conspiracy. The author of the works attributed to Shakespeare must have attended university at the very least and had some experience of the Court. Here is the shortlist:

1) Sir Francis Bacon, aristocratic lawyer. First proposed by Delia Bacon in the mid-Nineteenth Century. Sir Francis was a philosopher and the author of "The New Atlantis," and his cause has been taken up by a series of Rosicrucians and Theosophists. Secret codes have allegedly been found in the works of "Shakespeare" that "prove" that Bacon was secretly married to Queen Elizabeth and the rightful heir to the throne.

2) Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford. First proposed by J. Thomas (wait for it...) Looney. The current Earl of Oxford is its strongest proponent for some reason.

One feature that both of the above candidates have in common is that they are aristocrats. One of the underlying themes among the "Anti-Stratfordians" as they are collectively called, is that they seem to reject Shakespeare as an author because he is a commoner. Certainly only a nobleman would be capable of such elevated literary achievement. That makes our final candidate a breath of fresh air:

3) Christopher "Kit" Marlowe, atheist and spy. Marlowe was first proposed by T.W. White and remains a favorite candidate among working actors, who sense a stylistic "flow" from the works known to have been written by Marlowe into the earliest plays attributed to "Shakespeare." The only obstacle to this theory is that Marlowe was killed in 1593, a year before Shakespeare began writing. Or was he?


I have my own theories, but first I'd like to hear from the partisans of the above candidates. This is a conspiracy site, I know you're out there.
edit on 1-2-2016 by DJW001 because: (no reason given)




posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 09:55 AM
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I am a lil confuse by the title..who wrote Shakespeare?? or who was Shakespeare. double check if that's what you meant.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 09:57 AM
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originally posted by: Spider879
I am a lil confuse by the title..who wrote Shakespeare?? or who was Shakespeare. double check if that's what you meant.


"Shakespeare" is used to refer to the body of works attributed to him, as in "Shakespeare 101," or "Shakespeare For Dummies."



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:04 AM
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a reply to: DJW001

Wonderful Topic. I have always had my doubts as to a single authorship theory. The most logical idea is that there were many different play writers who all brought their plays to be put on by the famous actor William Shakespear. He was at least smart enough to put his name on the plays.

To me, it would be like people 500 years from now giving Patrick Stewart all the credit for Star Trek just because he is the most famous and remembered face.




posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:11 AM
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originally posted by: DJW001

originally posted by: Spider879
I am a lil confuse by the title..who wrote Shakespeare?? or who was Shakespeare. double check if that's what you meant.


"Shakespeare" is used to refer to the body of works attributed to him, as in "Shakespeare 101," or "Shakespeare For Dummies."

Ok gotcha..

If he had a ghost writer I think Francis Becon..why?? because If he did the KJV bible some said he put Shakespeare's name in the Bible as a mind insert-- expletive.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:15 AM
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a reply to: hubrisinxs

You are very close to the mark. I will get to my own theory in due time.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:15 AM
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originally posted by: Spider879

originally posted by: DJW001

originally posted by: Spider879
I am a lil confuse by the title..who wrote Shakespeare?? or who was Shakespeare. double check if that's what you meant.


"Shakespeare" is used to refer to the body of works attributed to him, as in "Shakespeare 101," or "Shakespeare For Dummies."

Ok gotcha..

If he had a ghost writer I think Francis Becon..why?? because If he did the KJV bible some said he put Shakespeare's name in the Bible as a mind insert-- expletive.


The King James Bible was written by a committee.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:22 AM
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originally posted by: DJW001

originally posted by: Spider879

originally posted by: DJW001

originally posted by: Spider879
I am a lil confuse by the title..who wrote Shakespeare?? or who was Shakespeare. double check if that's what you meant.


"Shakespeare" is used to refer to the body of works attributed to him, as in "Shakespeare 101," or "Shakespeare For Dummies."

Ok gotcha..

If he had a ghost writer I think Francis Becon..why?? because If he did the KJV bible some said he put Shakespeare's name in the Bible as a mind insert-- expletive.


The King James Bible was written by a committee.

Yes but wasn't Bacon on that committee??



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:32 AM
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a reply to: DJW001



Who Wrote Shakespeare?

You did. It's right there in your title. I hope that helps.

Okay now that that's out of the way, I think Bacon might have; although, how they taught a pig to write is beyond me. Okay, I'm joking again. Sorry. Yeah, Bacon. Anywho, how would anyone prove who wrote the material under the name of "Shakespeare" anyway? What if it wasn't any one person but several people?



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:32 AM
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a reply to: DJW001

I am partial to Penn Leary's theory that Shakespeare was Sir Francis Bacon.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:34 AM
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Ok here we go again ARGH! First let me say This is a good thread, I like threads that are fun and make you think. Very intelligently proposed.

As i wrote in a paper in 1970: ( Suffice it to say i will not rewrite a Thesis size paper here, Caution there may be Snidely Whiplash Comments below)

1) Sir Francis Bacon, NO, his prose do not match, he was a Lawyer, he was an aristocrat. Writing a play would have been beneath him, but taking credit would not, did i mention Lawyer?

2) Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, NO, , headmaster of Oxford, aristocrat etc etc. Prose do not match, After the fact family trying to take credit or just Looney.

3) Christopher "Kit" Marlowe, Interesting choice and has been for a couple of hundred years. Did William cop some ideas from Kit? I think so. May they have at one point work on some plays together this is also possible. But, Kit Marlowe was well constantly in trouble for his Excesses and Frankly his big mouth. Kit was the James Dean of his time. His ah Habits, put him accidentally in the position of Aiding the Queen, Sir Francis set this up, for him. He was a playwright, scientist, atheist, genius, gay., and the list goes on. But his plays, which were very good, do not resemble in style, those of Shakespeare. Did the 2 Collaborate YES, and drink together etc.

If you read "The Dark Lady of the Sonnets" and then all the Sonnets and contrast and compare, this is where you will see the hand of an Aristocrat, a Lady. It is my belief that that Lady was the Queen.

Background: (Gawd this is more then i have written here in 5 years, oh well here goes) (( next post, i have to remember some facts, i hate getting old but it beats the alternative. ))

G To be continued...



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:47 AM
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a reply to: Hermit777


1) Sir Francis Bacon, NO, his prose do not match, he was a Lawyer, he was an aristocrat. Writing a play would have been beneath him, but taking credit would not, did i mention Lawyer?


Correct; Sir Francis was notorious for blowing his own horn; if he wrote Hamlet he would make sure everyone and their servant knew.


2) Edward de Vere, 17th Earl of Oxford, NO, , headmaster of Oxford, aristocrat etc etc. Prose do not match, After the fact family trying to take credit or just Looney.


I agree. Oxford might have used a front man for his theater, but he would certainly have published the sonnets under his own name.


3) Christopher "Kit" Marlowe, Interesting choice and has been for a couple of hundred years. Did William cop some ideas from Kit? I think so. May they have at one point work on some plays together this is also possible. But, Kit Marlowe was well constantly in trouble for his Excesses and Frankly his big mouth. Kit was the James Dean of his time. His ah Habits, put him accidentally in the position of Aiding the Queen, Sir Francis set this up, for him. He was a playwright, scientist, atheist, genius, gay., and the list goes on. But his plays, which were very good, do not resemble in style, those of Shakespeare. Did the 2 Collaborate YES, and drink together etc.


The circumstances surrounding his death are interesting. He was "killed," not in a tavern, but in a private residence used by the Northwest Passage group: a safehouse. Poley's description of the fight is not plausible physically. There are other detailsI will go into later.


If you read "The Dark Lady of the Sonnets" and then all the Sonnets and contrast and compare, this is where you will see the hand of an Aristocrat, a Lady. It is my belief that that Lady was the Queen.


Interesting.... I can't wait for the next installment.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 10:53 AM
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a reply to: DJW001

The idea that Shakespeare didn't write those wondeful works, was started by people from London and the South East Of England. Why would they do that ?

The answer is that they cannot bear the very thought that someone with world wide stature came from The Midlands of England and not from London or The South East Of England.

Everything of any value has to revolve around London.

Who wrote Shakespeare? Answer.................William Shakespeare.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 11:02 AM
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a reply to: alldaylong

Are the Cotswolds considered to be Midlands? I thought they were just South country.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:01 PM
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originally posted by: hubrisinxs
To me, it would be like people 500 years from now giving Patrick Stewart all the credit for Star Trek just because he is the most famous and remembered face.



I know this goes dreadfully off topic, but I can't ignore such an insane comment. Patrick Stewart is the most famous and recognizable face of Star Trek? Huh?

I mean, I'll give you top 3, but in the number three spot at best.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:05 PM
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a reply to: usernameconspiracy

Perhaps a better analogy might be the vain hunt in the 25th century to find biographical information about the brilliant author Monty Python.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:08 PM
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a reply to: DJW001

Shakespeare wasn't considered a genius in his lifetime. His mythic status came after his death. So, while he was alive, there wasn't a great deal written about him.

His works are HIS and HIS alone.



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:30 PM
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a reply to: DJW001



Are the Cotswolds considered to be Midlands? I thought they were just South country.




The Cotswolds are both in the Midlands and South West England. They Cover the counties of Gloucestershire, Oxfordshire, Somerset, Warwickshire, Wiltshire, Worcestershire.

The candidates you put forward, Sir Francis Bacon. Edward deVere and Christopher Marlowe all hail from London and The South East Of England.

Here are some counter arguments as to why Shakespeare did write his works. Including this:-



Carol Chillington Rutter of Warwick University takes issue with those who argue that Shakespeare was not educated enough to have written learned works. She demonstrates the intense rigour of Elizabethan grammar schools, where children could translate Latin into English and back, could recognise the most intricate rhetorical tropes and figures (metaphor, allegory, hyperbole) and got through reading lists that would today constitute a university classics degree


www.theguardian.com...



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:33 PM
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So this brainy guy who had little schooling but wasn't in the least bit stupid, could not write plays? what school did the Greek philosophers go too? What school did Alexander go to? one of the greatest Greek generals?
I'm presuming because Shakespeare was English, he could not sharpen a duck quill?



posted on Feb, 1 2016 @ 12:38 PM
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A subject I've actually read up on.

I don't think anyone really knows for sure.

Last I read, it was possibly a collective of "higher learners" - - that collaborated with a lower class person(s) of questionable character - - hence the bawdy behaviors not part of polite society.

Also, that it was possibly a woman.

Anyway, there had to be a collaboration between someone(s) of the elite and someone of lesser character. One told the stories, the other wrote them.



edit on 1-2-2016 by Annee because: (no reason given)



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