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originally posted by: 3NL1GHT3N3D1
If God could strike Ananias and Sapphira dead in the NT, then why did he need the Israelites to conquer and genocidally kill neighboring towns and cities for him in the OT? Was it so he could see his "chosen people" become corrupted by their murdering and pillaging? Or does he just enjoy watching his creation fight amongst one another?
Instead of commanding his chosen people to break his commandment of "thou shalt not kill", why didn't he just snap his fingers and "poof" those who worshiped and sacrificed to other gods out of existence? Why the need for the bloodshed? Why the need to throw some of his chosen people onto the sword in their attempt to conquer others?
What is the purpose behind him pitting his children against one another in war and genocide, ordering his people to take slaves of those they conquered, and killing the animals and children of said people? Why?
originally posted by: buster2010
Where is the proof that God told them to do any of this? Just because they wrote it down in a book doesn't mean that it is true.
originally posted by: BELIEVERpriest
a reply to: 3NL1GHT3N3D1
Because Satan ordered his nations (the rest of the world) to kill for him. You should understand, that human history as it occured is a result of Satan requesting an appeal trial to his sentence of condemnation. Therefore, to satisfy a fair trial, Satan has certain rights, and God is obligated to follow certain rules. At the fall of Nimrod's kingdom, Satan inherited the gentiles, and God was reserved His own representative on earth (Israel). The context of "thou shalt not kill", is murder. When it comes to killing human sacrificers, by God's direct orders, it is not murder, but justice. There have been times when God requested Israel to kill men, women, and children. In these instances, when Israel failed to carry out these orders, those very nations became a threat to Israel years later. God created us, therefore it is His will to determine how and when we wil die.
Like I said before, if God struck Ananias and Sapphira dead without bloodshed in the NT, then why couldn't he have done the same in the OT? Was he not as powerful as in the NT that he had to have others do it for him?