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If God is all-powerful, why did he need the Israelites to kill for him?

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posted on Feb, 20 2015 @ 08:18 AM

originally posted by: Tangerine
No, all nations did not consider themselves "the chosen people" under their deities. Only the followers of the Abrahamic religions buy into that crap. Please don't makes claims about religions and cultures with which you are unfamiliar and lump them into the fetid stew of monotheism.

Okay, you caught me...I was using the term "all" loosely in that comment, as well as the phrase "chosen people." What I was trying to convey is that all practitioners of religions believe that their god is the correct one that should be worshipped above all others (even polytheistic religions have a hierarchy order and 'cults' devoted to certain gods that spring up) and that doing so would mean that they will be chosen to have the protection and favor of that god.

In Christianity, that "favor" means an absolving of all consequences of sin and an eternal life in Heaven. But they all have their versions of how devoting one's self to a god will create some everlasting favor for him/her or his/her people.

I've done plenty of research into religions and their cultures--I may not be familiar on a first-hand basis anymore with any of them (other than the Western Culture, of which I'm a part), but I'm not as ignorant as you pretend me to be, but I do appreciate the concern in this matter.

posted on Feb, 20 2015 @ 10:47 PM
a reply to: Tangerine

How could you possibly know what is closest to the originals

There are methodologies employed in the assessment of what is most authentic, even if the originals no longer exist. This issue isn't unique to The Bible, it's addressed by historians with anything written of old.

I'm not entirely sure but I believe The Dead Sea Scrolls discovery helped verify the authenticity of our translations of the Old Testament.

Actually, what does it matter?

That's a loaded question lol...

Many reasons it would matter. From both sides of the fence.

One specific example: A discussion on whether the Bible explicitly forbids homosexuality. If it can be shown that it's exclusive to specific modern translations then it is grounds for believers to change their religious stance.

...As can be seen when comparing verses of Paul's from the Latin Vulgate and say the currently popular New International Version or English Standard Version and others.

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