It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
I think this is not the right question. The right question is, "how does gravity really work?" and if it doesn't use gravitons there's no need for them. There are some difficulties with trying to integrate gravitons into the standard model, and so the standard model doesn't include gravitons. "Extended versions" of the standard model do but they aren't really "standard".
originally posted by: Thill
why is there a need for a graviton ?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
Yes of course, the radius of matter in the black hole is zero, so the volume is zero, which is why it's called a "singularity". When you calculate density it's mass per unit volume, so mass divided by zero volume gives you the density of the mass in the black hole singularity.
Roger Penrose published a paper about this in 1965. His point of view was that what you stated is a prediction of general relativity, and he listed these four ideas on on how the problem of that prediction might be resolved, which to me shows he didn't find the prediction plausible, though he used the qualifier "If, as seems justifiable,....":
originally posted by: ImaFungi
What factor of the theory dictates that 'the radius of matter in the black hole is zero'? According to theory, what makes that statement necessary to be made, and thought to be true?
Thank you, and yes a placeholder is a good description!
originally posted by: ErosA433
a reply to: Arbitrageur
Great reply and would just like to further support the reply by saying that, it is basically a placeholder.
I can't explain the math any better than Roger Penrose and probably not as well. It's a consequence of the math of general relativity. Did you read his paper?
originally posted by: ImaFungi
Can you say, what precisely about these particular Einstein equations, results in the singularity?
Einstein's original theory of general relativity doesn't mention black holes, but if you apply his equations as Roger Penrose did that's the result that comes from doing the math and yes it's the mass. Penrose and probably most other physicists are skeptical about this zero radius prediction and as Penrose said, maybe "Einstein's equations are violated" so the math of general relativity no longer applies at such high space-time curvatures, meaning maybe the radius isn't really zero and there isn't really a singularity. When I read between the lines in his paper, I get the impression he thinks the singularity probably doesn't really happen so the radius isn't really zero, for the reasons I stated in my previous post.
Are you sure you mean to say the theory states the radius of matter is 0? Or do you mean to say the believed center of a black hole has a radius of 0?
It's primarily electron degeneracy pressure that keeps your feet above the ground when you're standing up, in a non-intuitive quantum mechanical effect.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
What is meant by electron degeneracy?
The space-time curvature gets so curved that mass no longer takes up any space according to the equations though Einstein himself didn't predict this and I don't think he believed in black holes. This comes from others solving his equations for black hole conditions.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
You cannot generally relatively say what about Einstein concept of space time leads to mass radius 0?
There are some times when you just need the math and this is one of them, not necessarily to understand what really happens since Penrose doesn't believe the prediction inside a black hole, but to understand how the math makes this prediction.
Any chance the reason for such conception, has to do with the volume in question being a 'relative sphere' (likely closer to sphere, than pyramid or cube); my point being; all 3d shapes, or 3d volumes, have a relative exact center; and so potentially distinguished with the 1d pointillistic math theory and graphing, was there a potential confusion about the potential importance of the exact 1/0 dimensional conceptual exact center of a sphere, and the thought that continual quantities of mass and energy must potentially be able to end up there?
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
The space-time curvature gets so curved that mass no longer takes up any space according to the equations though Einstein himself didn't predict this and I don't think he believed in black holes. This comes from others solving his equations for black hole conditions.
originally posted by: ErosA433
When fusion ceases however, the energy source keeping the material hot, ceases, thus the material cools and gravitational forces take over, causing the core of the star to compress.
But what if the inward pressure and heating does not re-ignite the core? Does it just collapose and become a singularity?
originally posted by: ImaFungi
Why would the material cooling result in greater effectiveness of gravity?
Yes indeed and that's the whole idea behind Stephen Hawking's concept of Hawking radiation, that the mass of a black hole can be reduced because some radiation is emitted for the black hole. Of course to have a net loss in mass, the temperature of the black hole needs to be higher than the temperature of the Cosmic Microwave background (CMB), which would only happen with a relatively small black hole, with less mass than the moon I think. Larger black holes still gain mass overall because of absorbing CMB radiation for the time being. Eventually this will change as the CMB cools further.
originally posted by: dashen
In a high-energy photon collision a positron electron pair is formed.
if it is possible to create mass from something massless by adding energu, by removing energy is it possible to reduce mass?
Nobody ever said that the mass would cease to exist, just that Einstein's equations say it would stop taking up space which as I said is not widely believed to be what really happens.
originally posted by: ImaFungi
There is no reason to conclude that mass, would cease to exist amidst curvature approaching 'infinity'
For me personally a conceptual problem is that relativity implies time would continue to pass normally to an observer falling into a black hole even after they pass the event horizon (let's assume supermassive black hole at this point so no need to discuss spaghettification near the event horizon). So how do you correlate this with the passage of time outside the event horizon? You can't. I have no problem conceiving how an observer on earth sees time slowing down near the event horizon outside it, but what about inside the event horizon? Is it true that there's no correlation between time inside the event horizon and the time of an external observer?
But anyway, lets move past that and let me ask this;
Considering some of the thoughts regarding black holes are correct, but lets assume it is false that mass has radius of 0 (false in reality, and false according to a better interpretation of Einstein);
Then what else would be an issue? Where else is there a hang up?
Be my guest, but I'll bet you didn't even read Roger Penrose's paper on how he solved the equations and you have nothing constructive to add. No, we don't need someone else solving the equations differently in my opinion, what we need are other equations for this circumstance. To me your comment is like suggesting that someone needed a better solution of Newton's math to predict the precession of Mercury and that was never going to happen, because we needed more equations, not a different interpretation of existing equations.
Someone should solve the equations,