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How can 1,500 out of millions be an accurate poll sample?
Sample
1: a representative part or a single item from a larger whole or group especially when presented for inspection or shown as evidence of quality: [A specimen]
2: a finite part of a statistical population whose properties are studied to gain information about the whole
Originally posted by BrokenCircles
Is it an accurate sample? I don't know. Probably is though.
Why do we tolerate so much disrespect from the system
Originally posted by EarthCitizen07
Originally posted by BrokenCircles
Is it an accurate sample? I don't know. Probably is though.
You MUST be kidding! 1,000 out of lets say 10 million registered voters is NOT accurate by ANY MEANS!
Originally posted by EarthCitizen07
Hi. I just checked the major polls at politico.com and I noticed the samples ranged between 500 and 1,500 per polling agency. Then I noticed that ONLY democrats and republicans are listed with their respective percentages.
There is an undecided or other classification ranging from 1 to 8 percent.
I think the whole concept is a bad joke that no one in their right mind should take seriously. Do the pollsters even know the other parties by the name of libertarian, constitution, green, socialist, justice, communist, etc?edit on 14/10/12 by EarthCitizen07 because: hit return by accident while starting the thread
Originally posted by Liquesence
How can it be accurate or representative? Statistically, it just is. There is a minimum sampling subset for the population that is just as representative of the population as a high sampling number. If honest, random samples are taken, they are accurately representative of he entire population just as much as if nearly everyone in a population were polled. That's just the way it happens to work, and why true random samples generally accurately reflect the population.
There is, of course, margins or error due to outliers, etc, but this why why samples are generally statistically sound, and why scientific polls generally accurately reflect the outcome.
Originally posted by EarthCitizen07
Originally posted by Liquesence
How can it be accurate or representative? Statistically, it just is. There is a minimum sampling subset for the population that is just as representative of the population as a high sampling number. If honest, random samples are taken, they are accurately representative of he entire population just as much as if nearly everyone in a population were polled. That's just the way it happens to work, and why true random samples generally accurately reflect the population.
There is, of course, margins or error due to outliers, etc, but this why why samples are generally statistically sound, and why scientific polls generally accurately reflect the outcome.
So you think 0.00000001% of a sample is statiscally accurate. I don't know what to say because I am lost of words that would fit the terms and conditions of the site. Perposterous does not begin to describe anything!
No sample is anywhere close to being 100% reflective of reality. Say you poll 1% of a state population and by devil's coincidence they ALL happen to be republicans, the media takes it as truth but when the actual vote is counted the democrats win by a landslide 99% to 1%. Go ahead and prove me wrong!