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Originally posted by madnessinmysoul
So what's the reasoning here?
Originally posted by Hefficide
The Bible asserts that Jesus was a Rabbi. Assuming that he did exist, and that he was a Rabbi, then he was not illiterate.
Originally posted by Hefficide
reply to post by Romantic_Rebel
Jesus was allowed to teach in the temple by the Pharisees. Can you find an example of anyone being allowed to do this who was not a Rabbi?
[edit on 9/6/10 by Hefficide]
Originally posted by Romantic_Rebel
From the what the New Testament says; Yes they did allow him. But once he started changing the Torah around he was rejected.
www.messiahtruth.com...
So if you compare the OT and the NT you get two combustible text that do not support one another.
Originally posted by Hefficide
Originally posted by Romantic_Rebel
From the what the New Testament says; Yes they did allow him. But once he started changing the Torah around he was rejected.
www.messiahtruth.com...
So if you compare the OT and the NT you get two combustible text that do not support one another.
Then we agree, until the Pharisees began the process that led to his crucifixion, he was a Rabbi who was welcome to teach in the temple.
Originally posted by Romantic_Rebel
reply to post by Hefficide
Well most likely. I believe he spoke Aramaic and probably Latin. Since Roman rule was in power. I doubt what we read about him today (if he did exist) was what he did in life.