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Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Reply to post by captaintyinknots
That is called forced.
In my state, I am free to work in whatever occupation I choose.
Posted Via ATS Mobile: m.abovetopsecret.com
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Reply to post by captaintyinknots
www.stopteacherstrikes.org...
Posted Via ATS Mobile: m.abovetopsecret.com
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
reply to post by captaintyinknots
Really?
Forced unionism employment contracts exist in c. two thirds of all school districts in Pennsylvania, affecting c. 75% of all teachers
I thought you said I can work in any occupation I choose.
Apparently I can't be a teacher in 2/3 of PA.
I can be a teacher in 100% of Texas.
Originally posted by apacheman
So to be fair, shouldn't corporations operate under the same rules vis-a-vis obtaining permission from shareholders every year?
Shouldn't all the shareholders have a say in how the corporation spends their money? That would mean that prior to a corporation making any political expenditures, they would require written permission from each shareholder with the option being approval of the expenditure for the specified political reasons or the same amount being paid as dividends?
edit on 22-2-2011 by apacheman because: sp
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Reply to post by captaintyinknots
www.stopteacherstrikes.org...
Posted Via ATS Mobile: m.abovetopsecret.com
. . .
You are speaking to a teacher, someone who is part of a union, someone who chooses to be part of said union, and someone who is THRILLED to have said union, as they are the ONLY reason that my salary stays livable. I repeat: THE ONLY REASON.
with pages of pro-union propaganda-doesnt mean it makes a valid point. The cartoons give your "source" away immediately. Sad attempt.
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Ahh.
The old fall back. Attack the source, instead of the content.
We can play your way then.
--"To compel an individual to furnish contributions of money for the propagation of opinions which he or she disbelieves, is sinful and tyrannical."
-Thomas Jefferson--
In 1970 with Act 195, teachers were given the right to collectively bargain and the main state teacher unions (PSEA & PFT) were granted monopoly bargaining rights in school districts. The PSEA are dominant in Pennsylvania via their local affiliates, with just a few districts being represented by the PFT. The PSEA are the largest state affiliate of the NEA, while the PFT are part of the AFT (AFL-CIO). The 1970 law made "dues deduction" and "maintenance of membership" negotiable items in a contract.
. Teachers have no choice as to who represents them when receiving an employment contract. In exchange for monopoly bargaining rights, it was deemed appropriate that non-union teachers should not have to pay union dues. It was deemed unreasonable to force representation on teachers and then force them to pay for it.
No teacher can be (legally) forced to join a union, but they are forced into being represented by the one union operating in their school district
This changed in 1988 when Pennsylvania enacted Act 84, the so-called "fair share" law which meant that non-union school employees could be forced to pay dues to the union. Pennsylvania enacted Act 15 in 1993 which is the "fare share" law for local and county employees. It was left to each individual public employer to negotiate if they wanted to have such an agency shop agreement. Public employers can agree to agency shop (or not) at their discretion. If an agency shop ('fair share') agreement exists in a school district then non-union teachers are forced into having dues witheld from their paycheck without their permission. If an agency shop agreement does not exist in a school district, then non-union teachers do not have to pay dues to the union. The list of school districts which have an agency shop agreement can be found at the bottom of this page.
SO have at it.
Argue the facts.
Originally posted by Janky Red
Originally posted by apacheman
So to be fair, shouldn't corporations operate under the same rules vis-a-vis obtaining permission from shareholders every year?
Shouldn't all the shareholders have a say in how the corporation spends their money? That would mean that prior to a corporation making any political expenditures, they would require written permission from each shareholder with the option being approval of the expenditure for the specified political reasons or the same amount being paid as dividends?
edit on 22-2-2011 by apacheman because: sp
Nope because our mates here are corporatists in denial... There is no tool in their idea toolbox that is able to
address this larger problem because their ideas protect corporations by proxy.
I will tell you one thing, this just changed the field
edit on 22-2-2011 by Janky Red because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
1)When said source boasts its bias in the very headline of the article, then yeah, i do throw it out, as its useless. Try bringing a relevant source.
2)You are still missing the point, which I do not care to explain again. They have a choice. They are not forced. Your argument-------->out the window.
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
reply to post by captaintyinknots
I can be a teacher in Dallas, Houston, El Paso, San Antonio. Anywhere I want in Texas, even if I do not want to be pay a Union.
In Pennsylvania, if I do not want to pay a Union, I am not free to work in 2/3 of the state.
Two horses are on a farm. They both want to eat grass wherever it happens to be more green.. The farmer puts one on the open range to feed. The farmer puts the other in the a corral.
Which horse is more free?
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
1)When said source boasts its bias in the very headline of the article, then yeah, i do throw it out, as its useless. Try bringing a relevant source.
Again . . . I put forth a quote by Thomas Jefferson (one of freedom's greatest advocates), and the PA law. Hardly biased
2)You are still missing the point, which I do not care to explain again. They have a choice. They are not forced. Your argument-------->out the window.
You won't bother because you are being obtuse.
YOu can't defend your position.
Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
Two horses are on a farm. They both want to eat grass wherever it happens to be more green.. The farmer puts one on the open range to feed. The farmer puts the other in the a corral.
Which horse is more free?
Originally posted by HoldTheBeans
Originally posted by Janky Red
Originally posted by apacheman
So to be fair, shouldn't corporations operate under the same rules vis-a-vis obtaining permission from shareholders every year?
Shouldn't all the shareholders have a say in how the corporation spends their money? That would mean that prior to a corporation making any political expenditures, they would require written permission from each shareholder with the option being approval of the expenditure for the specified political reasons or the same amount being paid as dividends?
edit on 22-2-2011 by apacheman because: sp
Nope because our mates here are corporatists in denial... There is no tool in their idea toolbox that is able to
address this larger problem because their ideas protect corporations by proxy.
I will tell you one thing, this just changed the field
edit on 22-2-2011 by Janky Red because: (no reason given)
What are you talking about? Teachers don't work for a corporation. You are the one in denial.
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
as they are the ONLY reason that my salary stays livable. I repeat: THE ONLY REASON.