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Originally posted by atreides
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
I disagree, but at this point it is purely semantics.
Ummm, it is not "purely [I'm assuming you mean 'merely'] semantics" it is entirely semantics.
You made a statement about semantics (the meaning of a word). I'm only addressing semantics here, not any grander philosophical imperative you seem to be trying to communicate.
"Criminal" has a specific, defined and objective meaning as much as the words "book," "envelope," "dirt," and "lightbulb" have.
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
Criminal does not have the same type of defined meaning as paper or book. That is downright silly. If thats the case, let me ask you this: How is it possible, for two people to be arrested for the same thing, but one to be let free with a warning and one to have charges stick?
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
if the definition of crime and criminal are so iron clad, there should be no question about it. You commit the 'crime', you are a 'criminal' and deserve to be punished. Yet in these situations, one person is labeled a criminal, and one not.
Finally, again, this is beside the point and nothing more than an attempt to derail. My point is clear, but in case you missed it, I'll say it again:
Every single revolutionary in history, was considered a criminal by someone. Washington, Paine, Guevarra, King, X, Ghandi, Lenin....yet others consider them to be the models that they wish to follow.
Originally posted by atreides
What punishment someone receives for committing a crime is irrelevant to the etymology of the word "criminal." A criminal is someone who acts in contravention to a resolution enacted by a law-making body. You said "The words 'criminal' and 'crime' are completely subjective." and that's the only thing I'm addressing here, not any grander philosophical message you've since decided to tack on.
What punishment someone receives for committing a crime is irrelevant to the etymology of the word "criminal." A criminal is someone who acts in contravention to a resolution enacted by a law-making body. You said "The words 'criminal' and 'crime' are completely subjective." and that's the only thing I'm addressing here, not any grander philosophical message you've since decided to tack on.
Whether or not the actions of a criminal are justifiable is irrelevant to the etymology of the word "criminal." A criminal is someone who acts in contravention to a resolution enacted by a law-making body. You said "The words 'criminal' and 'crime' are completely subjective." and that's the only thing I'm addressing here, not any grander philosophical message you've since decided to tack on.
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
1)I am not speaking of punishments. I am speaking in terms of actual arrest vs. being let go. Are you arguing that it is within a police man's rights to decide who is a criminal and who is not?
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
Also, again, if it is the same 'crime' how can one person become a 'criminal' because of it and the other not?
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
It is absolutely subjective, and you can dance around it all you want. Crimes are defined by perception-they are decided on by what someone or some group deem appropriate.
Originally posted by captaintyinknots
reply to post by atreides
You can tell emotion through a computer? Wow, thats impressive.
So, do you care to debate the topic, or are you gonna continue to prove only that you are a juvenile?
Originally posted by whatukno
In fact in a way you are putting a lot of liability on the ownership of ATS for discussing such things on a public forum.
If two or more persons in any State or Territory, or in any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof, they shall each be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than twenty years, or both.
Originally posted by whatukno
TITLE 18 > PART I > CHAPTER 115 > § 2384
Seditious conspiracy
If two or more persons in any State or Territory, or in any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof, they shall each be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than twenty years, or both.
You could be subject to a fine. Or you could be jailed for up to 20 years.
Sorry, your little song and dance with the Declaration of Independence doesn't cut it. It in fact is a crime to conspire to bring down the United States Government by force. Sorry internet revolutionaries. But those are the facts. In fact in a way you are putting a lot of liability on the ownership of ATS for discussing such things on a public forum.
Originally posted by whatukno
reply to post by hawkiye
I am taking this quite seriously. However. I don't think that a violent revolution falls under the category of "not harming anyone". Apparently to you a violent revolution harms no one.
But if the law stated in the OP is not to your liking and therefore only to YOU is unconstitutional, then we can just go straight to the source and use Article III Section 3 of the United States Constitution.
Treason against the United States, shall consist only in levying war against them, or in adhering to their enemies, giving them aid and comfort. No person shall be convicted of treason unless on the testimony of two witnesses to the same overt act, or on confession in open court.
The Congress shall have power to declare the punishment of treason, but no attainder of treason shall work corruption of blood, or forfeiture except during the life of the person attainted.
I would call a violent revolution against the Constitutionally elected government levying war against them. So if it's not Sedition, it's Treason. Either fines and a 20 year jail sentence or the punishment for Treason. Because apparently YOU get to pick and choose which laws you obey and which to YOU are unconstitutional and therefore can be ignored.
I mean you can try your defense in a courtroom. I wouldn't recommend it myself. But you certainly are free to try.
I am in no way promoting a revolution/civil war over the HCP, but I read so many posts that seem to indicate that the posters don't think there is ever a set of circumstances in which overthrow is needed. That is a slap in the face of the Founding Fathers and an admission that, whatever you call youself, you are a full-blown Statist who values the "state" over personal liberty.
Originally posted by whatukno
TITLE 18 > PART I > CHAPTER 115 > § 2384
Seditious conspiracy
If two or more persons in any State or Territory, or in any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof, they shall each be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than twenty years, or both.
You could be subject to a fine. Or you could be jailed for up to 20 years.
Sorry, your little song and dance with the Declaration of Independence doesn't cut it. It in fact is a crime to conspire to bring down the United States Government by force. Sorry internet revolutionaries. But those are the facts. In fact in a way you are putting a lot of liability on the ownership of ATS for discussing such things on a public forum.