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Legal Advice (Landlord - Tenant)

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posted on Mar, 14 2008 @ 06:04 PM
Question: If a landlord rents out a home and immediately goes into foreclosure on the home, is he in fact breaking the lease by not securing ownership of the property?

I signed a 6 month lease and was assured that in no way the home would be in danger of foreclosure, and that I was only interested in a long term rental (5+ years), and that I WOULD NOT be in a financial position after 6 months to move into another home. The landlord insisted on the first lease period to be 6 months as he was a 1st timer and wanted a "trial period". He assured me that there was no danger of me losing the home and can fully unpack and become comfortable in the home and that after 6 months we can do year to year leases. I repeatedly expressed my unwillingness to rent a home that was in danger of foreclosure. This was a verbal agreement between us.

If I move out into a home that has become available to me April 1st, will I be the lease breaker? Or is my landlord already the lease breaker for lying to me in order to get me to rent from him under false and undisclosed pretenses?

Many thanks! =)


posted on Mar, 14 2008 @ 06:59 PM
reply to post by Creedo

Landlord Tenant rules and regulations generally vary State to State.

In my state you would have grounds for certain compensation depending on your specific injury resulting from the foreclosure

Most states have a Landlord Tenant statute. Check online.



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