posted on Mar, 14 2008 @ 06:04 PM
Question: If a landlord rents out a home and immediately goes into foreclosure on the home, is he in fact breaking the lease by not securing ownership
of the property?
I signed a 6 month lease and was assured that in no way the home would be in danger of foreclosure, and that I was only interested in a long term
rental (5+ years), and that I WOULD NOT be in a financial position after 6 months to move into another home. The landlord insisted on the first lease
period to be 6 months as he was a 1st timer and wanted a "trial period". He assured me that there was no danger of me losing the home and can fully
unpack and become comfortable in the home and that after 6 months we can do year to year leases. I repeatedly expressed my unwillingness to rent a
home that was in danger of foreclosure. This was a verbal agreement between us.
If I move out into a home that has become available to me April 1st, will I be the lease breaker? Or is my landlord already the lease breaker for
lying to me in order to get me to rent from him under false and undisclosed pretenses?
Many thanks! =)