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I used the Bible ALONG WITH the Koran. And the OP explains how the Bible reflects the Korans message... That he wasn't ''killed'' because Jesus himself said ''no man can take my life''.
the2ofusr1
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
But you are using the Koran to say something that is not in the Bible ...The Koran says He didn't die but the Bible says He did .peace
Like the OP said, it ''appeared'' as if Jesus died by crucifixion, because he laid down his life. (John 10:18). But it appears that way. The Romans and everybody else, recorded what they thought they saw.The Koran reveals the truth that he was not ''killed''and that those say he was are in conjectur... A truth that Jesus confirmed when he said ''no man can take his life''
Shiloh7
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
To confirm Jesus's death surely one should be looking at the Roman records, which were extremely well preserved and accurate from that time in history
The Gospel of John was the later of the gospels to be written.
. . . he did not die of the crucifixion, and nobody killed him.
I referred to the Romans who were present when their men executed Jesus.
Shiloh7
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
Can you say where in the Roman records they record the death of Jesus?
sk0rpi0n
The Koran reveals the truth that he was not ''killed''and that those say he was are in conjectur...
A truth that Jesus confirmed when he said ''no man can take his life''
Exactly. That invalidates the typical Christian claim that he was ''killed'' or ''sacrificed'' by those nasty Romans/Jews . He gave his life up because he said he could and he took it back again. See John 10:18 (Bible)
No man took His life. He gave it up freely.
sk0rpi0n
That invalidates the typical Christian claim that he was ''killed'' or ''sacrificed'' by those nasty Romans/Jews . He gave his life up because he said he could and he took it back again.
See John 10:18 (Bible)
"This is my command: Love each other." - John 15:17
"So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets." - Matthew 7:12
For the entire law is fulfilled in keeping this one command: "Love your neighbor as yourself." - Galatians 5:14
Let no debt remain outstanding, except the continuing debt to love one another, for whoever loves others has fulfilled the law. - Romans 13:8
Belcastro
i have a question for you guys.
why did jesus say " My god, my god, why have you forsaken me?"
when he was on the cross?
Psalm 22
English Standard Version (ESV)
Why Have You Forsaken Me?
To the choirmaster: according to The Doe of the Dawn. A Psalm of David.
22 My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Why are you so far from saving me, from the words of my groaning?
2 O my God, I cry by day, but you do not answer,
and by night, but I find no rest.
3 Yet you are holy,
enthroned on the praises[a] of Israel.
4 In you our fathers trusted;
they trusted, and you delivered them.
5 To you they cried and were rescued;
in you they trusted and were not put to shame.
- Link
Shiloh7
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
To confirm Jesus's death surely one should be looking at the Roman records, which were extremely well preserved and accurate from that time in history.
How can you expect to get to the truth if you only rely on religious books which are written to be used for religious purposes, not historical purposes. The Koran may have a better acknowledged authorship than the bible which was written over a long period of time by different people, but neither can compare to the actual records of the Romans concerning the actions of their Govenors over the countries subject to Rome. Jesus, his existence or crucifixation, would have been well documented had it have happened. This was a man who had stirred up the people and anyone who had a following that threatened the Jewish Priesthoods and Roman rule would have been well documented. You don't give sermons on mounts to thousands of people, feed them from a couple of small baskets and carry out miracles etc without attracting a huge amount of attention from those whose authority you threaten.
The details of Jesus's life is not as important as his message.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
2) John 10:18 opposes the idea of Jesus having his life taken by men.
Here Jesus makes a fascinating declaration, that he - with God-given authority - was in charge of his own life and that no man could take his life away from him. The exact verse is as follows :
No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. - John 10:18
John 10:17-18
17 The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life—only to take it up again. 18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority to lay it down and authority to take it up again. This command I received from my Father.”
Matthew 16:21
21 From that time on Jesus began to explain to his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things at the hands of the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life.
John 15:13-14
13 Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one’s life for one’s friends. 14 You are my friends if you do what I command.
Matthew 20:17-19
17 Now Jesus was going up to Jerusalem. On the way, he took the Twelve aside and said to them, 18 “We are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be delivered over to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death 19 and will hand him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified. On the third day he will be raised to life!”
John 8:
27 They did not understand that he was telling them about his Father. 28 So Jesus said, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he and that I do nothing on my own but speak just what the Father has taught me. 29 The one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what pleases him.”
"What advantage did the Jews gain from executing their wise King?" (letter of Mara Bar-Serapion") in 73 AD
"Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men among us, had condemned him [Jesus] to the cross” Josephus 37-100 AD
"a wise man who was called Jesus . . . Pilate condemned him to be condemned and to die." Roman historian, Cornelius Tacitus 55-117 AD
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
3) The implications of John 10:18 is that Jesus could not have been truly "killed" by men, whether the Roman executioners or the Jewish priests.
If it were so, then Jesus' declaration that no man could take his life would be severely contradicted.
Belcastro
i have a question for you guys.
why did jesus say " My god, my god, why have you forsaken me?"
when he was on the cross?
Jesus was quoting Psalm 22, a messianic psalm that vividly describes the agony the suffering servant would endure. God the Father did not abandon his Son in his Son’s suffering but allowed him in his humanity to experience the sense of divine abandonment that humans often feel during times of need, and especially when in sin. Just as we often feel that God has abandoned us when we are suffering (even though this isn’t the case), so the Son of God in his humanity experienced that.aspect of human suffering as well. He died for our sins, and the weight of those sins—and thus the feeling of abandonment—must have been exceedingly heavy at that point. By quoting this psalm, Jesus shows that he is the fulfillment of that prophecy and that he will be vindicated, which is evident in the psalm’s triumphant ending. Answered by: Catholic Answers Staff Q&A Newsletter Enter your email to receive free weekly quick questions: * More like this Was Jesus "forsaken" momentarily by the Father on the cross? On the Cross, did Jesus really believe that his Father had abandoned him?
Why doesn't Islam put Muhammad on display? Christ is on display because He is sinless and spotless. We are saved from God (Father) by God (Son).
Islam denies that Jesus is the Son of God. They deny His Person and Work and therefore deny the GOSPEL OF GOD.
You are looking at half a sentence, of that verse, without weighing up the rest of its context and other verses in the New Testament, where Jesus specifically prophesies, that men will kill him!.
So when Jesus talks about laying down his life, in verse John 10 (and many other verses in the NT), he means, he will allow men to kill him, as no one could kill him, if He didn’t allow it to happen.
And, your ignoring many other verses in the NT, where Jesus talks about laying down his life, and how men will kill him…
Matthew 16:21
21 From that time on Jesus began to explain to his disciples that he must go to Jerusalem and suffer many things at the hands of the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life.
Matthew 20:17-19
17 Now Jesus was going up to Jerusalem. On the way, he took the Twelve aside and said to them, 18 “We are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be delivered over to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death 19 and will hand him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified. On the third day he will be raised to life!”
sk0rpi0n
Jesus only allowed them to arrest him, its not the same as allowing them to kill him.
If he allowed them to "kill him", he would be contradicting himself.
Before the arrest, Jesus prayed asking for the "cup" to pass from him. So he was hesitant to be arrested.
Islam only denies Jesus is the "son of God" or that he is divine. Islam does not deny Jesus as the virgin-born Messiah.
VoiceInTheWilderness: In the OT there are many prophecies for the coming Messiah. The Son of Man in Daniel was the ONE that they were expecting. Jesus used “Son of Man” to refer to Himself a lot because He is the Christ, the Messiah and this is to point them back to the Old Testament. Son of Man doesn't necessary refer to His humanity but to His messiahship and what the Prophets of old have been prophesying.
“Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?” (Matthew 16:13)
Jesus is here asking a question about the Son of Man. That is very important to keep in mind. He's asking to see what people think of the SON OF MAN. Some say, “that thou art John the Baptist: some, Elias; and others, Jeremias, or one of the prophets.” Then He turned to His disciples and asked them, “But whom say ye that I am?” Peter answered, “Thou art the Christ.”
This is the first key and it's a very important one for it proves that the Son of Man = is the Christ, the Messiah. When Jesus say that He is the Son of Man, He is not saying that He's human. But Peter didn't stop there… he went on with a deeper revelation from God the Father:
“Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.”
And that is a complete revelation. This Son of Man, this Christ/Messiah is God's Son. John writes: “But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.”
Jesus is the Christ, in other words, Jesus is the Son of Man and this Son of Man is the Son of God. Muslim not only deny the Father but they deny the Son also. This is why Allah doesn't have the title or name "Father" in 99 of its names. Allah is not the Father of Jesus.
Do you wish to guide him whom Allah has caused to err? And whomsoever Allah causes to err, you shall by no means find a way for him.