Jesus and adultery

originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: TzarChasm
No, it has to be a willing act.
The distinction is even specified in the laws (Deuteronomy ch22 vv23-27).
When rape occurs "in the woman there is no offence punishable by death, for this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbour."

So... according to the parameters you described, Mary was an adulterer because technically she agreed to have another person's baby who wasn't her betrothed.

You mean when her Creator created a child in her womb?
Like I said.......

originally posted by: TzarChasm

originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: TzarChasm
No, it has to be a willing act.
The distinction is even specified in the laws (Deuteronomy ch22 vv23-27).
When rape occurs "in the woman there is no offence punishable by death, for this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbour."

So... according to the parameters you described, Mary was an adulterer because technically she agreed to have another person's baby who wasn't her betrothed.

originally posted by: visitedbythem
You mean when her Creator created a child in her womb?
Like I said.......

originally posted by: TzarChasm

originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: TzarChasm
No, it has to be a willing act.
The distinction is even specified in the laws (Deuteronomy ch22 vv23-27).
When rape occurs "in the woman there is no offence punishable by death, for this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbour."

So... according to the parameters you described, Mary was an adulterer because technically she agreed to have another person's baby who wasn't her betrothed.

Yes. She was betrothed and agreed to carry another man's child.

I guess if it's god it can't be wrong

🙄

a reply to: TzarChasm

You really should read the story in the Bible. Its nothing like the TV shows

originally posted by: visitedbythem
a reply to: TzarChasm

You really should read the story in the Bible. Its nothing like the TV shows

The real question is why he had to impregnate an actual woman instead of just creating a son like he did with Adam. It's curious to use such methods especially given the ethical implications and the fact that he shouldn't need a woman at all.

a reply to: TzarChasm
That question is put up and answered in Hebrews ch2. For the purpose of being "the pioneer of salvation" for the human race, it was necessary for Jesus to be a full member of the species, to "partake of the same nature", which entailed being "born of a woman". "He had to be made like his brethren in every respect."
If he had been a fresh creation, like Adam, he would have been a new species, which is not what the situation required.

originally posted by: TzarChasm

originally posted by: visitedbythem
You mean when her Creator created a child in her womb?
Like I said.......

originally posted by: TzarChasm

originally posted by: DISRAELI
a reply to: TzarChasm
No, it has to be a willing act.
The distinction is even specified in the laws (Deuteronomy ch22 vv23-27).
When rape occurs "in the woman there is no offence punishable by death, for this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbour."

So... according to the parameters you described, Mary was an adulterer because technically she agreed to have another person's baby who wasn't her betrothed.

Yes. She was betrothed and agreed to carry another man's child.

I guess if it's god it can't be wrong

🙄

Except we're talking about God, not another man.