It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
Originally posted by AugustusMasonicus
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
The primary historical source for the Gallic Wars is Caesar's Commentarii de Bello Gallico in Latin, which is one of the best surviving examples of unadorned Latin prose.
en.wikipedia.org...
Which is exactly what said. Your previous link was to the Commentarii de Bello Civi which is the civil wars, not the Gallic Wars. That book has been available since Caesar was alive with the exception of the 8th book. You are confusing two different books.
edit on 4-9-2013 by AugustusMasonicus because: networkdude has no beer
For Caesar’s Gallic War (composed between 58 and 50 B.C.) there are several extant MSS, but only nine or ten are good, and the oldest is some 900 years later than Caesar’s day.—F.F. Bruce
This brief survey of the textual background to Caesar’s Gallic War puts some flesh on the bones of F.F. Bruce’s brief statement. Bruce’s reasoning remains as valid today. Virginia Brown’s work is an excellent authority to cite when we point out the (approximate) 900 year gap between the date of publication and the first extant manuscripts.
Originally posted by Klassified
reply to post by ServantOfTheLamb
I'm going to leave you with this link OP. I can't take credit for it, though. Wandering Scribe posted it in another thread. Enjoy.
Failed Biblical Prophecies
Originally posted by Wertdagf
reply to post by ServantOfTheLamb
listverse.com...
So this is literal history!?!?!?!
What a sick piece of *%&^ your god is.edit on 4-9-2013 by Wertdagf because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
This link is stupid. I have seen it numerous times. The writers have no understanding of biblical theology, and don't even reference sources that agree with their point of view.... so yeah
Originally posted by MrSpad
The fallacy here is that Christianity today can not even agree what goes in the The New Testament. The first attempt to create it was in 300 and it was nothing like what is in it today. Many versions have with different books have been added or subtracted over the years. Books once important are tossed later as no longer canon while others added. Trying to prove the Bible as accurate is a fools errand because it suppose to be a matter of faith and not fact.
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
My bad to many people to respond to, but your still incorrect the earliest manuscripts are from the 9th century some 900 years after Caesar.
For Caesar’s Gallic War (composed between 58 and 50 B.C.) there are several extant MSS, but only nine or ten are good, and the oldest is some 900 years later than Caesar’s day.—F.F. Bruce
This brief survey of the textual background to Caesar’s Gallic War puts some flesh on the bones of F.F. Bruce’s brief statement. Bruce’s reasoning remains as valid today. Virginia Brown’s work is an excellent authority to cite when we point out the (approximate) 900 year gap between the date of publication and the first extant manuscripts.
www.timmitchell.fr...
www.icr.org...
Originally posted by daskakik
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
This link is stupid. I have seen it numerous times. The writers have no understanding of biblical theology, and don't even reference sources that agree with their point of view.... so yeah
Well, they are biblical prophecies so, the source is the bible.
So, if the bible says x is going to happen and it doesn't then it's a failed prophecy.
Doesn't get much simpler than that.
edit on 4-9-2013 by daskakik because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by AugustusMasonicus
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
My bad to many people to respond to, but your still incorrect the earliest manuscripts are from the 9th century some 900 years after Caesar.
For Caesar’s Gallic War (composed between 58 and 50 B.C.) there are several extant MSS, but only nine or ten are good, and the oldest is some 900 years later than Caesar’s day.—F.F. Bruce
This brief survey of the textual background to Caesar’s Gallic War puts some flesh on the bones of F.F. Bruce’s brief statement. Bruce’s reasoning remains as valid today. Virginia Brown’s work is an excellent authority to cite when we point out the (approximate) 900 year gap between the date of publication and the first extant manuscripts.
www.timmitchell.fr...
www.icr.org...
Both of the sources are Chirstian-leaning and are arguing the same point that you are trying to make. The first source only references the second source and adds no further information. They both neglect that a 'manuscript' is only a handwritten copy of what was more commonly used at the time which was a parchment palimpsest or scroll. These, while fragile, were what would have been more typically available to contemporaries of Caesar and those after him until the codex became more popular which inturn was replaced by the illuminated manuscript.
Addtionally, there are contemporaries of Caesar who referenced his works in their own, among them were; Paterculus, Ovid, Virgil, Cicero, Nepos, Catullus and Pollio, founder of Rome's first public library. I think you are getting hung up on the word 'manuscript' when it really is not entirely relevant to proving a theory.
Originally posted by daskakik
reply to post by ServantOfTheLamb
The bit of text that stands out to me is "thou shalt be built no more" yet there it stands.
I'd call that a fail.edit on 4-9-2013 by daskakik because: (no reason given)
When Alexander built his causeway out to the island fortress of Tyre in order to destroy it, he used every scrap from the ruins of the mainland part of the city that had been destroyed by Nebuchadnezzar. The location was so thoroughly scavenged that for centuries no one knew the exact location of the former city. The current Lebanese City of Tyre bears the same name but it’s not the same city as its Phoenician predecessor. A similar situation exists with Jericho. When Joshua destroyed the original city, he pronounced a curse on anyone who tried to rebuild it (Joshua 6:26-27). Today there’s a city called Jericho in the Palestinian territory, but the only thing it has in common with the original one is the name.
The present-day city of Tyre covers a large part of the original island and has expanded onto and covers most of the causeway, which had increased greatly in width over the centuries because of extensive silt depositions on either side. The part of the original island that is not covered by the modern city of Tyre consists mostly of an archaeological site showcasing remains of the city from ancient times.
Originally posted by daskakik
reply to post by ServantOfTheLamb
Yeah, right.
The present-day city of Tyre covers a large part of the original island and has expanded onto and covers most of the causeway, which had increased greatly in width over the centuries because of extensive silt depositions on either side. The part of the original island that is not covered by the modern city of Tyre consists mostly of an archaeological site showcasing remains of the city from ancient times.
Looks like someone is splitting hairs to keep the prophesy out of the fail bin.
Originally posted by daskakik
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
He explains it pretty decently
Because he splits hairs to your liking. Here is a googlemaps shot of tyre. Doesn't look like bare rock to me.
Originally posted by ServantOfTheLamb
i am not gonna argue prophecy on this thread.
Did Herod slaughter the innocents?
Another prophecy related to the birth of Jesus is the claim that the Messiah would be born at a time when King Herod was killing children. Only the gospel of Matthew (2:16-18) makes this claim, quoting a prophecy of Jeremiah (31:15) which states that "A voice was heard in Ramah, weeping and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children; and she refused to be comforted, because they were no more." There are two problems with this alleged messianic prophecy: it is not a prophecy about children being killed and it is quite doubtful that there ever was such a slaughter of innocents by Herod. "Rachel weeping for her children" refers to the mother of Joseph and Benjamin (and wife of Jacob) weeping about her children taken captive to Egypt. In context, the verse is about the Babylonian captivity, which its author witnessed. Subsequent verses speak of the children being returned, and thus it refers to captivity rather than murder. The slaughter by Herod is also in doubt because the writer of Matthew is the only person who has noted such an event. Flavius Josephus, who carefully chronicled Herod's abuses, makes no mention of it.
There was no Roman census!
When was Jesus born? According to Luke, it was during the reign of the Roman governor Quirinius, during a census ordered by Augustus throughout the whole world.(9) According to both Luke and Matthew it was also during the reign of king Herod "the Great."(10) The problem is that Herod died in 4 B.C.E., and this was fully ten years before Quirinius' census. Furthermore, during Herod's reign, no Roman census could have been held in his territory, which included both Judaea and Galilee, the locations of both Bethlehem and Nazareth.(11) Herod would have collected his own taxes, and given tribute to the Romans. Lastly, the existence of a census throughout the whole empire is contrary to the practice of the Romans, who collected taxes province by province, often subcontracting the process to "publicans."