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Only those that are willing to be led are the Sons and Daughters of God.
Originally posted by PrimeLight
reply to post by TheBrother
I have heard Buddah preached love and that's what Jesus brought with his 2 wonderful teachings. Love God above all, and your neighbor as yourself. Seems they were both working for the same side.
Indeed it may 'seem' as such, though one in service to the Word I expected to be informing others that buddha should only be accredited as a moreso 'enlightened' human at best, who became an integral organised figure of mass idol worship in apostasy--a very clear and gross violation of Commandment.
Better serving to share such grave warning of spiritual snaring to any seeking faithful according to the Word you claim to uphold. Salvation in Yehushua's Kingdom Grace is not at all in the path of following buddha going by his own words..."for on buddha's deathbed his followers asked who they should follow next and he replied "Be ye a lamp (or island) unto yourselves; work out your own salvation with diligence."
A clear contradiction to the Testament of Salvation in Yehushua and the price Paid on the cross for our sin by the Father who Sent His only begotten Son to become that Bridge for our Means of our Redemption.
I am a sealed Brother from the 1st Heaven
What is the meaning of such expression of 'title'?
I am not interested in learning what others have to teach me, I am here to serve not be served.
If that is the case, then please just address the question above.edit on 26-8-2013 by PrimeLight because: (no reason given)
You seem to be taking "word" as a quality.
. . . is he of the same Word as his creation?
Well you really aren't. You may not be aware of it but you are using a version used by certain self-appointed Jews to remove the meaning of Jesus' name as Saviour, by using the archaic version which means "saved by Yah . . ."
I subscribe to his Hebrew name meaning 'to deliver' and not the Greek translation.
The mechanism is not specific in that passage, just the person through whom God works.
The only way that man can be saved is through Christ. There is no other way.
Jesus bore our sins, meaning he took upon himself the curse of sin on our behalf. It does not mean our specific sins that we committed were placed on him.
Peter 2:24, "Who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree . . .
That is a human theory made up by Augustine, and actually goes against the Bible where Paul goes to great lengths to prove that God can be just while not punishing sin.
We have all sinned, and the penalty had to be paid in order for God to be just.
If we were not trapped in this cycle of sin and death, Jesus need not have intervened.
. . . in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
I cut out the middle part to make Paul's rhetoric clearer, what he is doing is comparing the earlier state that we were in (sinners) when Jesus died, to the state that we are in now, which is "justified", meaning to have been brought into conformity of righteousness, which was brought about by this new system of righteousness that Paul is presenting, that had to be brought into existence by, among other things, Jesus dying.
For scarcely for a righteous man will one die; . . .'. . . having now been justified by His blood, . . .
You are just inserting that in (the "paid" part) where it isn't in there as it was written.
Such wonderful love for God and Christ to have paid our penalty."
It doesn't mean anything like that. It means an appeasement, which would have been the righteousness of Jesus, in contrast to the sin of the world, as a counterbalance where God does not just destroy everyone like at the flood. The context has that meaning, and nothing about "paying" for anything.
1 John 2:2--"He is our propitiation for our sins, and not for our sins only, but for the sins of the whole world." Here the Greek word "hilasmos" is translated as "propitiation," meaning a complete satisfaction of a debt.
. . . this is suppose to be a dialogue between ONLY me and the questioner thank you.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by TheBrother
. . . this is suppose to be a dialogue between ONLY me and the questioner thank you.
I don't know how long you had been lurking here before you started posting, but if you had for very long, you would have noticed that that kind of thread never works.edit on 26-8-2013 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Bleeeeep
reply to post by TheBrother
You're saying the Word is God's desires and Jesus is just the embodiment of God's desires? His Word is his creation is his desires is his teachings?
By your understanding, wouldn't it imply that God was not in material form during Genesis?edit on 8/26/2013 by Bleeeeep because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by Klassified
reply to post by TheBrother
I do not publish,sell nor give-away easily all the answers, for what would a student learn in school if the teacher just gave all the answers without the opportunity to ascend in their thinking?
What would they learn? The answers, of course. I have heard this fall-back from those who portend to be wise, my whole life. It's a crock, and it's a cop out. If you know the answer to a question, you state it. Simple as that. If the answer is not understood, that is not your fault, as long as it was stated clearly. They will have to come to their own epiphany after that.
The quoted statement above tells me who and what you are. A fake. And one who wants to maintain superiority over those he thinks he is more knowledgeable than. I'm not trying to be offensive, but it seems to me you have already tipped your hand.
edit on 8/26/2013 by Klassified because: eta
Salvation is something everyone must work for, you don't just get it because Jesus had been crucified.
A brother which is the 1st level is that which is closest to the Earth and does the Testimony which is what I am doing here.
The context has that meaning, and nothing about "paying" for anything.
If we were not trapped in this cycle of sin and death, Jesus need not have intervened.
Well you really aren't. You may not be aware of it but you are using a version used by certain self-appointed Jews to remove the meaning of Jesus' name as Saviour, by using the archaic version which means "saved by Yah . . ." The Greek version, Jesus, is derived from the late, post exile, version of Joshua, not from the older transitional version. It really wouldn't be so important if people were not misusing it to remove any attributes of divinity from Jesus.
You just imagine that it implies things that you already believe. Things that you believe because someone told you to believe in it.
I provided an abundance of scripture to support the Truth of a repeatedly implied Payment within the Word you not only largely ignored, but distorted to support a false conclusion.
15 by destroying in his own body the enmity occasioned by the Torah, with its commands set forth in the form of ordinances. He did this in order to create in union with himself from the two groups a single new humanity and thus make shalom,
Feel free to also distort Ephesians 2
How does that even make sense? Are you saying that Jesus had to pay for himself?
And PAID the penalty for that Intervention on our behalf with an earthly horrible death.
When was Jesus "walking the streets of Jerusalem"? Jesus was born into family that most likely immediately moved to Alexandria where the Jews spoke Greek. Then he moved to Galilee of the Gentiles, well known for its Jewish writers in Greek. Jerusalem itself had a very large synagogue of Greek speaking Jews. Aramaic was basically a Syrian language. The region around Judea had been basically a Greek province since the time of Alexander the Great. Jesus probably preached in Greek and was also conversant with whatever gentiles he met up with, according to the Gospels, including Roman Soldiers, the gentile people on the Mediterranean coast, and Pontius Pilate.
When the Messiah was walking the streets of Jerusalem, the people around him were not addressing him in Greek but the native Semitic tongue.
No one would have been called "Yehushua", that being an artifact from early Torah writings, and if he was called by the Syrian or Hebrew version of Jesus, it would have been Yeshua, which was the version of the name used since the time of the kings. Like I was saying earlier, your version is from the so-called messianic Jews who use that name to subvert Christianity by taking away Jesus' name which means Savior, and replacing it with "saved by Yah . . .".
The native is the one I am most comfortable and aligned with on a personal level and one can still acknowledge his Divinity in application as Yehushua the Mashiac.
Originally posted by 2WitnessesArrived
Dear Brother,
I would like to say God bless you and I have a question.First, do you confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh? Is Zerrubabel and Joshua mentioned in Haggai and the book of Zechariah represent the two witnesses because that's what I believe has been revealed to me?And do you believe in a pre tribulation rapture or the rapture when the 7th trumpet is blown? Thank you for taking your time to answer my messageedit on 26-8-2013 by 2WitnessesArrived because: (no reason given)edit on 26-8-2013 by 2WitnessesArrived because: (no reason given)edit on 26-8-2013 by 2WitnessesArrived because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by guitarplayer
reply to post by TheBrother
You stated that the only way to receive the Holy Spirti was by laying on of hands. There was 120 in the upper room who was baptized with the H.S. Peter proclaimed that
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
This statement of only receiveing the Holy Spirit by laying on of hands is false.