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Originally posted by JackTheTripper
Pi is vaguely described as "(perfect) circle's circumference to its diameter".
....
Originally posted by this_is_who_we_are
Originally posted by circlemaker
It's 3.141... because that's the length of a circle with radius 0.5 in base10. There's not much more to explain than that. If it was 3.144 the radius would be slighter larger than 0.5 and wouldn't be as easy to work with.
Originally posted by davidgrouchy
...
This presuposes that the Egyptian trundle was one cubit in diameter.
David Grouchyedit on 29-10-2011 by davidgrouchy because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by JackTheTripper
Originally posted by circlemaker
It's 3.141... because that's the length of a circle with radius 0.5 in base10. There's not much more to explain than that. If it was 3.144 the radius would be slighter larger than 0.5 and wouldn't be as easy to work with.
How it would not be as easy to work with?edit on 29-10-2011 by JackTheTripper because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by davidgrouchy
But the actual exact formula for pi is
Pi = 4 -4/3 +4/5 -4/7 +4/9 -4/11 ...
infinite number of odd fractions
Originally posted by circlemaker
Sure you could have a circle with a circumference of 3.144, but that's relative to it's diameter, radius, area, and other things.
With pi the diameter is 1, with 3.144 it would be 1.000766282161838...
Originally posted by JackTheTripper
Originally posted by davidgrouchy
But the actual exact formula for pi is
Pi = 4 -4/3 +4/5 -4/7 +4/9 -4/11 ...
infinite number of odd fractions
W H Y ?
Why and who have made this pact the pi must be calculated like that - which is not any way related to nature (as fibonacci sequence and golden ratio and hence the pi value of 3.1446... are)?