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I always found Genesis 19:24 to be an interesting verse, particularly after the phrasing and expression recorded between Abraham and the three visitors in chapter 18. Two of them turn aside but the LORD remains with Abraham to discuss His intentions. Anyway, I digress.... Genesis 19:24 says, 'Then the LORD rained brimstone and fire on Sodom and Gomorrah, from the LORD out of the heavens.'
Early Use of the Name and Its Meaning. Exodus 3:13-16 and 6:3 are often misapplied to mean that Jehovah’s name was first revealed to Moses sometime prior to the Exodus from Egypt. True, Moses raised the question: “Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel and I do say to them, ‘The God of your forefathers has sent me to you,’ and they do say to me, ‘What is his name?’ What shall I say to them?” But this does not mean that he or the Israelites did not know Jehovah’s name. The very name of Moses’ mother Jochebed means, possibly, “Jehovah Is Glory.” (Ex 6:20) Moses’ question likely was related to the circumstances in which the sons of Israel found themselves.
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Then, too, we must keep in mind that names then had real meaning and were not just “labels” to identify an individual as today. Moses knew that Abram’s name (meaning “Father Is High (Exalted)”) was changed to Abraham (meaning “Father of a Crowd (Multitude)”), the change being made because of God’s purpose concerning Abraham. So, too, the name of Sarai was changed to Sarah and that of Jacob to Israel; in each case the change revealed something fundamental and prophetic about God’s purpose concerning them. Moses may well have wondered if Jehovah would now reveal himself under some new name to throw light on his purpose toward Israel. Moses’ going to the Israelites in the “name” of the One who sent him meant being the representative of that One, and the greatness of the authority with which Moses would speak would be determined by or be commensurate with that name and what it represented. (Compare Ex 23:20, 21; 1Sa 17:45.) So, Moses’ question was a meaningful one.
God’s reply in Hebrew was: ʼEh·yehʹ ʼAsherʹ ʼEh·yehʹ. Some translations render this as “I AM THAT I AM.” However, it is to be noted that the Hebrew verb ha·yahʹ, from which the word ʼEh·yehʹ is drawn, does not mean simply “be.” Rather, it means “become,” or “prove to be.” The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others. Therefore, the New World Translation properly renders the above Hebrew expression as “I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.” Jehovah thereafter added: “This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to you.’”—Ex 3:14, ftn.
That this meant no change in God’s name, but only an additional insight into God’s personality, is seen from his further words: “This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation.” (Ex 3:15; compare Ps 135:13; Ho 12:5.) The name Jehovah comes from a Hebrew verb that means “to become,” and a number of scholars suggest that the name means “He Causes to Become.” This definition well fits Jehovah’s role as the Creator of all things and the Fulfiller of his purpose. Only the true God could rightly and authentically bear such a name.
This aids one in understanding the sense of Jehovah’s later statement to Moses: “I am Jehovah. And I used to appear to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as God Almighty, but as respects my name Jehovah I did not make myself known to them.” (Ex 6:2, 3) Since the name Jehovah was used many times by those patriarchal ancestors of Moses, it is evident that God meant that he manifested himself to them in the capacity of Jehovah only in a limited way. To illustrate this, those who had known the man Abram could hardly be said to have really known him as Abraham (meaning “Father of a Crowd (Multitude)”) while he had but one son, Ishmael. When Isaac and other sons were born and began producing offspring, the name Abraham took on greater meaning or import. So, too, the name Jehovah would now take on expanded meaning for the Israelites.
To “know,” therefore, does not necessarily mean merely to be acquainted with or cognizant of something or someone. The foolish Nabal knew David’s name but still asked, “Who is David?” in the sense of asking, “What does he amount to?” (1Sa 25:9-11; compare 2Sa 8:13.) So, too, Pharaoh had said to Moses: “Who is Jehovah, so that I should obey his voice to send Israel away? I do not know Jehovah at all and, what is more, I am not going to send Israel away.” (Ex 5:1, 2) By that, Pharaoh evidently meant that he did not know Jehovah as the true God or as having any authority over Egypt’s king and his affairs, nor as having any might to enforce His will as announced by Moses and Aaron. But now Pharaoh and all Egypt, along with the Israelites, would come to know the real meaning of that name, the person it represented. As Jehovah showed Moses, this would result from God’s carrying out His purpose toward Israel, liberating them, giving them the Promised Land, and thereby fulfilling His covenant with their forefathers. In this way, as God said, “You will certainly know that I am Jehovah your God.”—Ex 6:4-8; ...
Professor of Hebrew D. H. Weir therefore rightly says that those who claim Exodus 6:2, 3 marks the first time the name Jehovah was revealed, “have not studied [these verses] in the light of other scriptures; otherwise they would have perceived that by name must be meant here not the two syllables which make up the word Jehovah, but the idea which it expresses. When we read in Isaiah, ch. lii. 6, ‘Therefore my people shall know my name;’ or in Jeremiah, ch. xvi. 21, ‘They shall know that my name is Jehovah;’ or in the Psalms, Ps. ix. [10, 16], ‘They that know thy name shall put their trust in thee;’ we see at once that to know Jehovah’s name is something very different from knowing the four letters of which it is composed. It is to know by experience that Jehovah really is what his name declares him to be. (Compare also Is. xix. 20, 21; Eze. xx. 5, 9; xxxix. 6, 7; Ps. lxxxiii. [18]; lxxxix. [16]; 2 Ch. vi. 33.)”—The Imperial Bible-Dictionary, Vol. I, pp. 856, 857.
Known by the first human pair. The name Jehovah was not first revealed to Moses, for it was certainly known by the first man. The name initially appears in the divine Record at Genesis 2:4 after the account of God’s creative works, and there it identifies the Creator of the heavens and earth as “Jehovah God.” It is reasonable to believe that Jehovah God informed Adam of this account of creation. The Genesis record does not mention his doing so, but then neither does it explicitly say Jehovah revealed Eve’s origin to the awakened Adam. Yet Adam’s words upon receiving Eve show he had been informed of the way God had produced her from Adam’s own body. (Ge 2:21-23) Much communication undoubtedly took place between Jehovah and his earthly son that is not included in the brief account of Genesis.
...It should be the desire of all Christians to see God’s name sanctified. Vatican efforts to eliminate its use dishonor Jehovah, the one who said: “This is my name for all time; by this name I shall be invoked for all generations to come.”—Exodus 3:15, The Jerusalem Bible.
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However, the Vatican directive seeks to reestablish the traditional Catholic position. That is to say, the Tetragrammaton is to be replaced by “Lord.” Moreover, in Catholic religious services, hymns, and prayers, God’s name “YHWH is neither to be used or pronounced.”
In support of this position, the Vatican’s document appeals to the “immemorial tradition” of Catholicism. The directive claims that even in the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, dating to pre-Christian times, the divine name was regularly rendered Kyʹri·os, the Greek word for “Lord.” Thus, the directive insists, “Christians, too, from the beginning never pronounced the divine tetragrammaton.” This statement, however, ignores clear evidence to the contrary. Early copies of the Septuagint contained, not Kyʹri·os, but the divine name in the form יהוה. Christ’s first-century followers knew and pronounced God’s name. Jesus himself said in prayer to his Father: “I have made your name known.” (John 17:26) And in his well-known model prayer, Jesus taught us to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.”—Matthew 6:9.
It should be the desire of all Christians to see God’s name sanctified. Vatican efforts to eliminate its use dishonor Jehovah, the one who said: “This is my name for all time; by this name I shall be invoked for all generations to come.”—Exodus 3:15, The Jerusalem Bible.
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: chr0naut
In the books written by Moses, such as Genesis, YHWH was used but it was not the name by which God was known to Abraham, as is explained in Exodus 6:3 which states, "I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as El Shaddai, but I didn’t make myself known to them by my name, YHWH."
Well explained chrOnaut,
Eth Cepher - SHEMOT
Exodus 6:3
And I appeared unto El-Avraham, unto El-Yitschaq, and unto El-Ya'aqov by El-SHADDAi, but by my name YAHUAH was I not known to them.
Yah-hoo-ah -- YHWH
Love ypur posts.
originally posted by: ChesterJohn
originally posted by: Lucius Driftwood
I always found Genesis 19:24 to be an interesting verse, particularly after the phrasing and expression recorded between Abraham and the three visitors in chapter 18. Two of them turn aside but the LORD remains with Abraham to discuss His intentions.
Anyway, I digress....
Genesis 19:24 says, 'Then the LORD rained brimstone and fire on Sodom and Gomorrah, from the LORD out of the heavens.'
Is some theophany on earth calling up to GOD in the heavens?
Pass. Maybe.
19:24 וַֽיהוָה הִמְטִיר עַל־סְדֹם וְעַל־עֲמֹרָה גָּפְרִית וָאֵשׁ מֵאֵת יְהוָה מִן־הַשָּׁמָֽיִם׃
www.blueletterbible.org...
Please look at the wording difference between your version and the Bible that has all the bible verses in it.Notice first, part of the verse is exactly the same as the Bible that has all the verses in it, and the one you have does not have all the verses, words, phrases and sections in it.
Ge 19:24 ¶ Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;
Secondly, is that the reason this version Writes it in this way, is because they had no right to sell the the AV1611 it is copyright free. So they make the changes for only one reason, Money, Money, Money.
Even when they copy rights a AV version it is copy righted because of their cross-references, their study notes, their maps and their comments, but not the text. In these new versions were only made so they could have copy right control over their version to make money.
Churches are now-a-days nothing but jobs to many Pastors, especially those who have multi-billion dollar a year ministry.
originally posted by: ChesterJohn
a reply to: chr0naut
My Prayer is that God's Holy Ghost will use this reply to help you to have faith in God doing what he said he would do, Preserve his words to every generation forever.
Yes all of them are copies, and some so small that if they were originals, there is not enough words on that piece to support the text of the rest of the Bible.
Dead language is one that no one speaks in 1611 or today, and has not spoken for some a 1,000 years, 1600 years and others for 3,000 years. But there is no one alive at the time of the AV who could verify any copies they used even the newest at the time Koine Greek, nor is there anyone today who knows whether or not it is spoken or pronounced correctly. One reason is that most of Strong's, Naves and Zoieates(SP?) Greek Dictionaries are based on Classical Greek. Why? No one has yet to find a Koine Greek Dictionary. And so they rely mainly on secular documents to interpret spiritual material with a limited amount of Koine Greek documents from the day. And still no one knows for sure if we are interpreting them correctly because many use the classical Greek to make their interpretations.
Yes we do have some full Syriac Bible copies of the Bible, however that language too is not the same as the Syrian that is spoken today. Just like There are two Schools of Arabic language one used in Saudi and one used in Iran. This is why there are fighting between these two sects of Islam. So it is no surprise that there are to different Syrian languages.
There are many reasons why the Holy Ghost has not revealed the truth of the AV being the preserved word of God to you. 1) You are not of the body of Christ i.e. not saved. 2) You are not looking for truth but looking for errors. 3) You are following men instead of the Holy Ghost. 4) You are not using the Bible's way of study and using the way the Holy Ghost teaches. 5) You are grieving the Holy Ghost. 6) You are quenching the Holy Ghost through heretical practices. 7) You are in disobedience to the God's words for the church Age i.e. speaking tongues in the assembly in a way that is against the way God teaches in 1 Cor 14 how it is to be done. 8)You are not Readying and Studying the AV long enough to allow God to show you the truths that many gloss over or read over without any understanding. 9) You are outside of the will of God. I am not say any of these apply to you because I do not know your heart, so that is up to you to do 2Cor 13:5 Examine yourselves, whether ye be in the faith; prove your own selves. Know ye not your own selves, how that Jesus Christ is in you, except ye be reprobates?
An example of the confusion is AV 1611 version Isa 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations! To the NIV Isa 14:12 How you have fallen from heaven, morning star, son of the dawn! You have been cast down to the earth, you who once laid low the nations! Here making Lucifer the Morning Star and then in the NIV in Rev 22:16 “I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.” Now you have two different people being called the morning star. So which one is really the Morning star? Lucifer or Jesus Christ?
Also, understand that the revisers of the word of God who created the NIV (which now has over four different versions of the NIV) had a open lesbian, and an Agnostic on the board of approval and editing. They also had the preconceived idea that Lucifer was wrong, and took it out by interpreting lucifer as "the bright", and adding morning star in place of son of the morning.
So yes these versions have caused confusion. I had the above verse and question asked me just last week in my Home Church's Open Question Night on the First Thursday of each month. His own words was this it is "confusing" to him. And I showed him just what I shared above and some other examples.
Unique Idioms are in them selves words that can change the meaning of the originally inspired words of God, of which we have no original text to verify the Vaticanus(sp?) and the Sitacanus(sp?) of which the NIV takes their version from. to know that they are the original meaning.
God gave his words and wrote them down on stone, he later had his Holy Men of God hear him and have those verses written on stones i.e. Moses
, and scrolls of papyrus (paper).
So God wanted his words written in plain speech so the simple man could learn, not just the priests, scholars and monks who would tell the people things that were not in the words of God as if they were i.e Mary worship, baptism of the Holy Spirit.
GO down to Barnes and Nobel and by a Authorized King James Bible not written in old English where the S looked like a F and a J like an I, they changed that prior to 1615. Don't be so revealing that you lack faith in the words of God, it shows why the Holy Ghost has not revealed the truth to you, if anything else.
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: Lucius Driftwood
I always found Genesis 19:24 to be an interesting verse, particularly after the phrasing and expression recorded between Abraham and the three visitors in chapter 18. Two of them turn aside but the LORD remains with Abraham to discuss His intentions. Anyway, I digress.... Genesis 19:24 says, 'Then the LORD rained brimstone and fire on Sodom and Gomorrah, from the LORD out of the heavens.'
I think you copied heaven [singular] as heavens [plural]. There could be serious implications between the two. Heavens can imply terrestrial only while heaven can imply either terrestrial or celestial. God dwells in the third heaven but not in the terrestrial heavens.