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originally posted by: Aedaeum
a reply to: craig732
First of all, it is my opinion that the bible is NOT the verbatim word of God. That being said, the Levitical law exists because man cannot contain his bloodlust. That is my opinion of course.
The short answer to your question is;
"Now we are discharged from the law, dead to that which held us captive, so that we serve not under the old written code [e.g. Leviticus] but in the new life of the Spirit"- Romans ch7 v6.
Without the bible we would still be stupid and sacrificing babies and women and children and men, if it wasn't for Jesus as the first and last religion. Consider yourself lucky to be living now instead of those times.
originally posted by: ChesterJohn
a reply to: DISRAELIactually I thought I was replying to the reincarnation of gnosisisfaith 101 enterthestage.
Anyway, almost everyone over looks Romans 1:18-31 in considering why people turn to homosexuality. It is God's will and purpose because they have rejected God and failed to retain him in their hearts and knowledge.
originally posted by: NOTurTypical
originally posted by: enterthestage
a reply to: NOTurTypical
I have been reading a few of your answers and I don't think issue is you I think you need to find a better Bible teacher because you just said that Leviticus was only for Levite priests.
There is no more Levitcal priesthood and it is still in the Bible so whether or not it was ever only for Levites it's in the Bible now. That response had to have been taught you by a pastor who is not so good at the Bible.
No, it's part of basic Biblical hermeneutics. It's taking the texts in context, and one of the fundamental ways to do that is identify the group of people the speaker was writing to so you don't misapply what was being said. Leviticus was written to instruct the Levite priests and God told Moses to address it to the children of Israel to follow. (Is says this in the first few verses)
The same glaring problem arises in the NT where people think the book of James is at odds with John chapter 3 or Ephesians chapter 2. It's not, James is writing to believers, not the unsaved. It's not an evangelistic letter, James is a pastoral one. In layman's terms, James isn't telling his readers how to be saved, he is telling them how saved people should act or in other words, the evidence of genuine faith.
Correct contextual application is crucial component to accurately dividing the word of God so errors aren't applied.
originally posted by: ChesterJohn
a reply to: enterthestage
Sorry while there may have been a mixed group of hearers his ministry was to the lost sheep of Israel only.
You are not in the position to correct anyone seeing you fail to rightly divide the word of truth, nor believe ALL the preserved word of God or that there is such a thing
originally posted by: ChesterJohn
a reply to: enterthestage
Neither.
I don't agree with homosexuality.
But in this day I am not commanded to kill them or adulterers.