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originally posted by: DISRAELI
What Jesus said was that the woman had been "saved".
That has to mean being saved from something. In the absence of a physical ailment, he must be referring to her condition of sin.
And her faith, by his statement, was responsible for saving her from that.
This is all I need to establish.
Rom 5:6 ¶ For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
Rom 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
1Cor 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
Only Paul speaks about Christ dying for sinners under the Gospel of the Grace of God.
However that particular verse is singularly applicable only to the one in the narrative, meaning that type of faith that saved her was limited to her and that time before the cross. the foundation of the Kingdom undert he gospel of the Kingdom was on Christ as their Messiah, so that faith would saved.
originally posted by: Seede
a reply to: ChesterJohn
However that particular verse is singularly applicable only to the one in the narrative, meaning that type of faith that saved her was limited to her and that time before the cross. the foundation of the Kingdom undert he gospel of the Kingdom was on Christ as their Messiah, so that faith would saved.
He did
Good thought Chester but do you think it may lie in foreknowledge. That is if you believe Jesus had foreknowledge. Let's assume that he did have foreknowledge. Jesus had only about three years in His ministry and we don't really know how old this woman was. But could it be that Jesus died for her forgiveness before he died?
Yes but she will not get her salvation (grace) until the Judgement time.
Let me explain. Jesus told this woman that her belief was her salvation but yet she had not died yet and had not experienced her salvation as yet. But Jesus knowing that He would be dead in a short time may have known that she would die after He died. Therefore He would have died for her salvation.
I have my salvation already according to Eph 1 because the Holy Ghost is the seal of my bodily redemption which will take place when we are gathered together with Jesus in the clouds evermore to be with him.
The same thing applies to you and I. By foreknowledge did Jesus know us? If so then by foreknowledge He died for us. Do you think that Jesus could have died also for the billions before His ministry? If it works in this future then why could it not have worked for the past?edit on 7-4-2016 by ChesterJohn because: (no reason given)