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originally posted by: arpgme
a reply to: chr0naut
But there's no reason to assume that those verses were originally on there so it wouldn't be like ripping the end off of a newspaper. It would be like looking at copies of the same newspaper and seeing that the older copy does not have the extra sentences like the newer copies.
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: arpgme
a reply to: chr0naut
But there's no reason to assume that those verses were originally on there so it wouldn't be like ripping the end off of a newspaper. It would be like looking at copies of the same newspaper and seeing that the older copy does not have the extra sentences like the newer copies.
Again, could the absence of the end of the text in the older copy be taken to imply that the event never happened?
Still nope.
The initial inference by Astynax, was that the resurrection did not happen because the post resurrection details are missing from the end of the oldest copies of Mark.
originally posted by: Harte
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: arpgme
a reply to: chr0naut
But there's no reason to assume that those verses were originally on there so it wouldn't be like ripping the end off of a newspaper. It would be like looking at copies of the same newspaper and seeing that the older copy does not have the extra sentences like the newer copies.
Again, could the absence of the end of the text in the older copy be taken to imply that the event never happened?
Still nope.
Who are you asking?
Wasn't the assertion that it could imply that the later parts of Mark were actually written later?
Harte