Why do peole think that Jesus was god?

a reply to: colbe
Funny, I have heard trillions of people say "I am", does that make all them god too?

a reply to: OptimusSubprime

If Jesus is not God, then this is terrible grammar. Only Jesus could say that and be telling the truth. To say "I am" is to say that He is the "I am" from Exodus when God told Moses "I am that I am". Jesus is the Great I am... Jesus is God, and he claimed as much more than once.

This was an angel talking, saying he was the same person who was representing God to the Patriarchs.
Jesus supersedes that angel as the representative of God, being the new name of God.

a reply to: BO XIAN

Titus 2:13 encourages us to wait for the coming of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ (see also 2 Peter 1:1).

The wording is ambiguous and could mean the epiphany of God's glory and Jesus'.

In Hebrews 1:8, the Father declares of Jesus, “But about the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last forever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.’” The Father refers to Jesus as “O God,” indicating that Jesus is indeed God.

It is just quoting Psalm 45:6.

a reply to: jmdewey60

I do apologize for misunderstanding you then, I thought you were arguing saying that Jesus was one and the same. It was my error.

originally posted by: TKDRL
a reply to: colbe
Funny, I have heard trillions of people say "I am", does that make all them god too?

Genesis 17:4
And God said to him: I AM, and my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations.

Exodus 3:14
God said to Moses: I AM WHO AM. He said: Thus shalt thou say to the children of Israel: HE WHO IS, hath sent me to you.

John 8:58
Jesus said to them: Amen, amen I say to you, before Abraham was made, I AM.

Jesus refers to himself with the divine name—I am —in several places. This "I am" formula is a reference back to the Divine Name revealed to Moses in Ex. 3:14. Not only does Jesus refer to himself as "I am" four times in John’s Gospel (see John 8:24; 58; 13:19 and 18:5-6), but when he does so in John 8:58, the Jews to whom he was speaking understood his meaning because they immediately wanted to stone him for blasphemy!


God bless you TKDRL,

www.drbo.org...

Amen!! Exactly right 100%... If people would just look for the answer instead of asking away as skeptics, all the tough questions are answered clear as day in the Holy Bible. a reply to: 5StarOracle

a reply to: OpinionatedB

I thought you were arguing saying that Jesus was one and the same.

I was getting into some stuff that is hard to figure out where I was going with it.
Anyway, I don't get offended so easily. You would have to sit here and lie about what I wrote for a couple weeks before I would get annoyed.
It was more just curiosity as to how you took what I had written.
The point I was making earlier is that in fact the Greek word for "one" is in that verse, and it literally always means just that.
Then, the next step is to figure out how the phrase was meant to be understood, which then is not literal, but figurative, in line with the bigger point in that section of John, that Jesus is claiming to be God's sole agent.

a reply to: ROCKWELL82

. . . all the tough questions are answered clear as day in the Holy Bible.

Of course the "The Word of God Is none other than Jesus..." part is a commentary that he was quoting, and not in the Bible.

a reply to: colbe

Jesus refers to himself with the divine name—I am —in several places.

That argument would be more powerful if it was ever picked up elsewhere in the New Testament, or if it was used in the Greek version of the Old Testament.
In Exodus 3:14, the Septuagint has it as "I am who sent you" where it is even more obvious that the person saying that was avoiding giving an actual name.
Jesus would have had to spell it completely out, "I am who sent Moses" to convince the Jews by this sort of talk, that he was claiming to be God, and even then, they could have argued that it was really an angel acting as the messenger speaking for God.

a reply to: jmdewey60

I don't know Greek, but I do know arabic - and some things in arabic were written without any dialectical / diacritical markings in the original, and the markings have the ability to change meaning.

The curiosity is was the word 'one' what was actually meant in the original, since here I believe the original greek was without the markings, or is there another alternative which would mean something closer to how the sentence is being said?

To say, this is the only interpretation of the word and the only diacritical markings that can be used, are you denying any other possible meanings to the sentence than the number 1?

Anyway, that is my curiosity, and my thinking at large concerning what you were indicating. As you had said, my conclusion of what you were getting at, or going toward was incorrect. But since you were curious, this is why I came to the incorrect conclusion.

a reply to: OpinionatedB

To say, this is the only interpretation of the word and the only diacritical markings that can be used, are you denying any other possible meanings to the sentence than the number 1?

It is easy enough to look at several versions of the Greek text of the verse.
They all have the same markings for that word.
Diacriticals were in use from before the New Testament was written.

ACTUALLY,

To All the people on here who imply that 'people aren't reading their Bible's', have clearly never read their own, or have done so but have not understood.

Now before you start screaming 'church' this or 'church' that, ill have you know that I have not been indoctrinated, i do not go to church because of the simple reason I would rather learn of God directly from the source, so the whole 'you've been told that from an early age' does not apply. I've never been to church. All you need to know God is his Word, and yourself.

Secondly I read from a 1611 KJV, an exact reprint of the FIRST legally produced English translation of the original Greek(NT) and Hebrew(OT). For those who say it is a catholic trinity version or something, my point is, it's not. I read from an edition that is without at LEAST 400 years of alterations.

NOW FOR THE GOOD STUFF

Starting with the very FIRST verse, from the Gospel according to S. John, he wanted to make it clear at the very BEGINNING who Christ truly was before he even began to mention the works of his earthly life.
JOHN 1:1-14
"1 In the beginning was the Word, & the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him, and without him was not anything made that was made. 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light shineth in darkness, and the darkness comprehended it not. 6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the light, that all men through him might believe. 8 He was not that light, (still speaking of John) but was sent to bear witness of that light. 9 That was the true light, which lighteth every man that commeth into the world. 10 (now speaking of the light) He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. 11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not. 12 But as many as received him, to them he gave thee power to become the sonnes of God, even to them that believe on his Name: 13 which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us full of grace and truth."
(emphasis added)

These 14 verses ALONE could stand as the true testament that Christ was God, for those who still need a clear explanation, here it is:
It says in the beginning was the Word, and it was stated as being WITH God, as well actually BEING God at the same time. To our human mind, what we know and how we think, this clearly does not make any sense, how can you be 'with' yourself? I don't have the answer to that, nobody does. What we have to understand about God is this, he is completely beyond what our human logic can comprehend. The mysteries of God are truly amazing and without end. We as humans do not like when we can't understand something, it's our pride. So if WE can't comprehend it, then it can't be true. That's how we look at things.

So now we know the Word is God, and God is the Word. It says all things were made by him. So God and the Word together, as One, created all things.

It goes on to speak of the light of this world, whom john was sent to be as a witness of that light. By reading 6-9 you can clearly correlate that this light is Christ, if you have read the Gospel that is, if not, read it. Jesus even refers to himself as this light of the world (John 8:12).

Still speaking of the light is says, he was in the world, and the world was MADE BY HIM. Yet the world knew him not.

So now we have another "facet" of God that is OF God, and IS God at the same time. The Word, The Light, and God are all stated as creating the world, and they are all stated as being part of God. So in turn they ARE God.

Finally it says that the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us! Since Christ is the only facet of God that became flesh, this verse clearly states that Christ is the Word, and since the Word is God, Christ is God. Furthermore, since he stated himself to be the light of the world, and we now know the light was in God, this further demonstrates that fact.

Even with a simple explanation like this it is difficult to understand. It is rather hard to explain and describe something that the human mind can not fully comprehend no matter how hard you try, we've been trying for thousands of years.

===========================================================================================================

Anyways, I have a couple more points directly from scripture to add to my argument but since it's almost 3:30am, I'll leave it at that and perhaps post more tomorrow.

God Bless.

a reply to: AboveThePinnacle01

Even with a simple explanation like this it is difficult to understand. It is rather hard to explain and describe something that the human mind can not fully comprehend no matter how hard you try, we've been trying for thousands of years.

Do you know what a narrative is?

I do know what a narrative is, though I'm not sure what you're getting at.

Jesus Christ who is God the Son, Second Person of the Blessed Trinity. He is Our Lord and Savior, true God and true man.


The Letter of Barnabas

"And further, my brethren, if the Lord [Jesus] endured to suffer for our soul, he being the Lord of all the world, to whom God said at the foundation of the world, ‘Let us make man after our image, and after our likeness,’ understand how it was that he endured to suffer at the hand of men" (Letter of Barnabas 5 [A.D. 74].

Who is Barnabas?

Personal
Surname of Joseph, a member of the early Christian church in Jerusalem (Acts 4:36)
Companion of Paul
Did missionary work with Mark (Acts 15:39)

Writings
Letter of Barnabas
Allegorical interpretation of the Old Testament

originally posted by: jmdewey60
a reply to: BO XIAN

Titus 2:13 encourages us to wait for the coming of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ (see also 2 Peter 1:1).

The wording is ambiguous and could mean the epiphany of God's glory and Jesus'.

I would take that to be an individual epiphany, an "AHA!" moment in the life of an individual when they make the connections.

originally posted by: jmdewey60
a reply to: OpinionatedB

To say, this is the only interpretation of the word and the only diacritical markings that can be used, are you denying any other possible meanings to the sentence than the number 1?

It is easy enough to look at several versions of the Greek text of the verse.
They all have the same markings for that word.
Diacriticals were in use from before the New Testament was written.

The copy we have doesn't have them - it doesn't have ANY of the diacriticals, which is why the question arose to begin with. Now, whether that's because it's an electronic copy or not, I couldn't say. I used to have a hard copy of a different version, and as I recall it DID have the diacriticals in it, but it was destroyed several years ago.

a reply to: jmdewey60

Actually I had done just that (all modern versions found on the internet), and yes I found they all were saying the same- to satisfy my own curiosity.

However, you will have to forgive my sense of distrust as in my experience most translators translate according to their own preconceived beliefs, often putting that before truth. It is a rare man who will translate according to the actual text regardless of belief. These rarities are never popular, as truth and its proponents never are.

As my husband said however, our copy in the greek didn't have the markings - which is what led to the initial question in the first place - my personal notions were my own, however.

Much respect.

a reply to: nenothtu

The copy we have doesn't have them - it doesn't have ANY of the diacriticals, . . .

Here is a web site that I use a lot for their info on word forms,
studybible.info...
and it doesn't have the diacriticals for some reason, so I have to go to another site to get those
biblehub.com...
I work on this sort of thing every day for my blog, where I sort verses by verb and noun forms to make comparative studies on how words with a particular morphological form is used in sentences.
I started doing that when the NetBible web site quit doing that for some reason, and I found it so useful that I am doing it myself on my own blog, just for fun of course since I am just correlating info I get from other sites and organizing it in a way that is easy for me to study.
The original goal of all this was to decipher the Septuagint, which it turns out in practice that I don't spend that much time at, but I do whenever I am looking at OT verses anyway.

originally posted by: AboveThePinnacle01
I do know what a narrative is, though I'm not sure what you're getting at.

When are you going to finally tire of the LARGEST LIE EVER, that Gods ways are not understandable, completely above in a way we cannot understand.

This program, of futility, WE, will DESTROY IT.

All the religions, angels, ANY kinds of beings out there, who have put EVERYTHING into keeping us in the dark for reasons I CAN FATHOM... are about to find out why THEY exist.

And why they are about to be rendered.........GONE.